BCSP CSP Exam Questions

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1.

Given Ce = 0.715 and SP = 0.4 ″wg, what is the airflow velocity of the system?

Use the formula V = 4005Ce√SPh, where V = velocity of air (fpm), C= coefficient of entry loss, and SP= static pressure of the hood (″wg).

  • 1811 fpm

  • 722 fpm

  • 1208 fpm

  • 2174 fpm

Correct answer: 1811 fpm

Calculating the airflow velocity in a local exhaust system must account for the coefficient of entry loss, which is the energy that is needed to overcome the losses caused by air moving into and through the duct.  

We can calculate the airflow velocity and account for the coefficient of entry loss by using the following formula:

V = 4005Ce√SPh

Insert the known variables and solve.

V = 4005Ce√SPh

V = (4005)(0.715)√0.4 = 1811 fpm

2.

Which method is NOT one of the three primary strategies used to minimize occupational exposure to ionizing radiation? 

  • Using calibrated equipment

  • Minimizing time next to the source

  • Maximizing your distance from the source

  • Shielding the source

Correct answer: Using calibrated equipment

Time, distance, and shielding are the three primary strategies used to minimize occupational exposure to ionizing radiation. 

Minimizing time next to the source refers to attempts to reduce the amount of time spent next to the source of radiation. To do this, preplan your work by reading and understanding your procedure, practice the job ahead of time on a mock-up of the component, do as much prep work away from the source as possible, and make sure you've staged all needed materials, tools, equipment, and procedures required to do the job.   

To maximize your distance from the source, make sure you understand where the lower radiation areas are inside the work area before entering and move to those areas or exit the area as soon as your work is complete. When traversing to and from your work area, stay away from higher radiation areas. Stay at arm's length from the component you are working on.

Shielding the source involves installing shielding on the component that you're working on or on adjacent components with higher radiation levels. Work behind structures in the area to attenuate higher radiation levels.  

3.

Which wastewater treatment stage uses disinfectants to remove microorganisms?

  • Tertiary

  • Primary

  • Secondary

  • Alternate

Correct answer: Tertiary

Primary wastewater treatment uses gravity to settle out heavier solids that sink to the bottom and are contained in large sediment tanks. Lighter solids rise to the top. Chemicals can be added to coagulate and remove additional solids. The remaining effluent is then transferred to the secondary stage.

Filters, aeration ponds, and activated sludge are used in the secondary treatment, which removes soluble organic matter and smaller suspended solids that weren't captured in the primary stage. Water processed at this stage can be released into the environment without damaging aquatic life and ecosystems.

The final or (tertiary) treatment stage is also called polishing, which disinfects the water to drinking water standards. This stage uses UV and chemical disinfection to destroy microorganisms.

There is no stage designated as "alternate" in wastewater treatment.

4.

Which classification of chemical does NOT adhere to the typical dose-response curve that is common to most toxic substances? 

  • Carcinogens

  • Epigenetics

  • Mutagen

  • Teratogen

Correct answer: Carcinogens

Carcinogens, which include any substance or agent that is known to cause cancer, have been found to have a dose-response assessment that is different from non-carcinogens. Studies have shown that there is no threshold for a dose to a carcinogen that does not elicit a response. This means it may only take one molecule of a substance to genetically alter a cell, giving it the potential to develop into cancer. 

Epigenetics can cause alterations to an individual's genome without a change in the sequence of their DNA. These changes can result from exposure to toxic metals such as arsenic, chromium, cadmium, and lead.  

Mutagens are chemical or physical agents that cause changes in the DNA. There are chemical and physical mutagens. Chemical mutagens include Ethyl-Methane-Sulphonate (EMS), nitrous oxide (HNO2), and hydroxylamine (HA). Physical mutagens include tobacco products, x-rays, and ultraviolent radiation. 

Teratogens are any agent that can interrupt or disturb the development of a fetus or embryo. Physical teratogens include alcohol, tobacco or recreational drugs. Some chemical teratogens include Polychlorinated Biphenyls (PCBs) and organic mercury compounds. 

5.

Which of the reasons listed is the MOST important factor to consider when creating an operational safety budget? 

  • Implementing improvements based on safety inspections, risk assessments, and accident investigations 

  • Maintaining precedence for future budget allocations

  • Preventing federal, state, and local environmental safety and health citations

  • Tracking progress of environmental safety and health program goals

Correct answer: Implementing improvements based on recommendations from safety inspections, risk assessments, and accident investigations 

There are many reasons for maintaining an effective operational safety budget. These reasons include accounting for impending or new legislation, replacing or upgrading worn-out safety equipment or machine guards, refurbishing facilities and equipment, procuring Personal Protective Equipment (PPE), and maintaining instruments needed for health surveillance and environmental monitoring.

Making provisions in the safety budget to account for recommendations from safety inspections, risk assessments, and accident investigations is imperative to exhibit a commitment to continuous improvement and to illustrate to the workforce management's commitment to their safety and well-being.  

Maintaining precedence for future budget allocations is about consistency in budgeting but doesn't address immediate safety needs directly.

Avoiding fines is important but not the main goal; improving safety is more critical.

Tracking progress helps but isn’t the main focus; the priority is funding necessary safety improvements.

6.

Per OSHA, how often must employers visually inspect portable fire extinguishers?

  • Monthly

  • Weekly

  • Quarterly

  • Annually

Correct answer: Monthly

Employers are responsible for ensuring that portable fire extinguishers are maintained, tested, and visibly inspected monthly and serviced annually.  

OSHA does not require weekly inspections. However, frequent checks can further ensure safety.

Quarterly inspections do not meet OSHA's standard as they are not frequent enough.

Annual service is required, but annual visual inspections would be inadequate for meeting OSHA's standard. 

7.

What OSHA requirement describes the systems in place to control the ignition or spread of a fire?   

  • Fire Prevention Plan (29 CFR 1910.39)

  • Emergency Action Plan (EAP) (29 CFR 1910.38)

  • Fire Detection Systems Standard (29 CFR 1910.164)

  • Employee Alarm System Standard (29 CFR 1910.165)

Correct answer: Fire Prevention Plan (29 CFR 1910.39)

A Fire Prevention Plan (29 CFR 1910.39) is designed to prevent a fire from occurring in the workplace. It describes the fuel sources (hazardous or other materials) on site that could initiate or contribute both to the spread of a fire, as well as the building systems, such as fixed fire extinguishing systems and alarm systems, in place to control the ignition or spread of a fire. It must be in writing, kept in the workplace, and be made available to employees for review. An employer with 10 or fewer employees may communicate the plan orally to employees. 

An Emergency Action Plan (EAP) (29 CFR 1910.38), is a written document required by OSHA to facilitate and organize employer and employee actions during workplace emergencies. Well developed emergency plans and proper employee training will result in fewer and less severe employee injuries and less structural damage to the facilities during emergencies.

The Fire Detection Systems Standard (29 CFR 1910.164) is required when a fire detection system is installed for the purpose of activating a fire extinguishing or suppression system, and to provide an alarm for employee evacuation. It also requires the design to activate the system in time to control or extinguish a fire. 

The Employee Alarm System Standard (29 CFR 1910.165) is written to reduce the severity of workplace accidents and injuries by ensuring that alarm systems operate properly, and that procedures are in place to alert employees to workplace emergencies. 

8.

A successful hearing conservation program would use all the following training elements EXCEPT:

  • Calculating the velocity of sound

  • Effects of noise on hearing

  • Purpose of hearing protectors

  • Purpose of audiometric testing

Correct answer: Calculating the velocity of sound

Noise and noise exposure are important aspects of any occupational exposure training program. Per OSHA, employees should be part of a hearing conservation program if they have potential exposure above regulatory thresholds. They must be trained at least annually on:

  • The effects of noise on hearing
  • The purpose, advantages, and disadvantages of various types of hearing protectors
  • The purpose of audiometric testing

Employees are not required to learn how to calculate the velocity of sound.

9.

When polonium (atomic mass 210 and atomic number 84) emits an alpha particle, which decay product results?

  • Lead (atomic mass 206 and atomic number 82)

  • Bismuth (atomic mass 209 and atomic number 83)

  • Thallium (atomic mass 204 and atomic number 81)

  • Mercury (atomic mass 201 and atomic number 80)

Correct answer: Lead (atomic mass 206 and atomic number 82)

In alpha decay, an alpha particle is emitted. The emitted alpha particle is typically the helium nuclide (atomic mass of 4 and 2 protons). So, the atomic mass will be reduced by 4, and the atomic number will be reduced by 2.

For this problem, 210 - 4 = 206 atomic mass, and 84 - 2 = 82 protons, which is lead.

10.

A steel worker wearing personal fall protection falls 4 feet before being stopped by the fall arrest system. The worker weighed 220 pounds, and the total arresting force at the anchorage points was 1,100 pounds. 

What is the additional G force felt by the worker?

  • 4

  • 3

  • 5

  • 6

Correct answer: 4

The steel worker weighs 220 pounds. Weight is a function of gravity, so when the worker is stationary, they experience a force of 1 G.

The additional G forces felt in the fall are calculated as follows:

Additional force: 1100 - 220 = 880 pounds

1 G = 220 pounds, so 880 pounds/220 lbs/G = 4 G

11.

What is the minimum civil penalty the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) may impose for each willful violation?

  • $9,753

  • $3,650

  • $10,000

  • $25,000

Correct answer: $9,753

As of January 2022, the minimum Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) may propose for a willful violation is $9,753.

OSHA regularly updates the maximum and minimum penalties for civil violations. The organization's website should be checked to verify the most up-to-date values.

12.

Which of the following terms refers to epicondylitis?

  • Carpenter's elbow

  • De Quervain’s disease

  • Vibration white finger

  • Trigger finger

Correct answer: Carpenter's elbow

Epicondylitis is from the combined action of pronation of the hand and ulnar deviation, such as swinging a hammer, which combines both motions. Symptoms include pain in the elbow, forearm, and hand. It is also called carpenter's elbow because of the occurrence of this condition among carpenters. Other terms include golfer's elbow and tennis elbow.

Work-related musculoskeletal disorders (WRMDs) are a significant area of potential injuries for safety practitioners supporting work environments where there are combinations of repetitive motion, awkward positions, force, and vibration. Traditionally, these disorders were perceived to be related to construction trades or manual labor. More recently, there is an increased emphasis and attention to WRMDs in industries such as healthcare, manufacturing, transportation, and retail, in addition to construction, mining, and agriculture.

De Quervain's disease is a condition affecting the tendons on the thumb side of the wrist caused by repetitive motion involving making a fist, grasping, or twisting the wrist.

Raynaud's syndrome, also known as vibration white finger, is a WRMD associated with vibration and cold temperatures. Using impact tools, grinding wheels, and vibrating sanders are activities that are associated with this condition.

Trigger finger is a finger locking or soreness disorder that can result from the repetitive use of trigger-activated power tools or machine controls (see OSHA's Ergonomics).

13.

A work supervisor acting as a coach or guide usually conducts what type of training?

  • On-the-job training

  • Self-paced learning

  • Work supervision

  • Discussion groups

Correct answer: On-the-job training

Structured on-the-job training is typically delivered by a work supervisor acting as a coach or guide in the training process. To be most successful with this type of training, clear goals and objectives should be established before starting.

Structured on-the-job training is one of three major training delivery methods; self-paced learning and instructor-led training are the others. Work supervision does not necessarily involve coaching or guided training. Discussion groups are a type of learning method. 

14.

An employee has been monitored using a noise dosimeter, and it indicates they have been exposed to 64% of the permissible exposure. What is the TWA, expressed as a sound pressure level?

Use the formula TWA = 16.61 log10 (D/100) + 90, where TWA = time-weighted average and D = measured dose.

  • 86.77 dBA

  • 62.06 dBA

  • 98.36 dBA

  • 70.48 dBA

Correct answer: 86.77 dBA

In order to convert noise dosimetry readings into a TWA, use the following formula:

TWA = 16.61 log10 (D/100) + 90

Insert the known variables and solve.

TWA = 16.61 log10 (64/100) + 90

TWA = 16.61 log10 (0.64) + 90

TWA = (16.61)(-0.194) + 90

TWA = -3.222 + 90 = 86.77 dBA

15.

Kristen wants to use the most effective method of teaching to ensure her students retain the most information possible. Which of the following should she use?

  • Have students teach others

  • Use discussion groups

  • Use audiovisual aids

  • Have students read materials

Correct answer: Have students teach others

When planning or conducting a training session, instructors should consider specific delivery methods. Retention rates vary widely based on the delivery method. Participants who are required to teach others retain about 90% of the information.

Participants in discussion groups retain about 50% of the information, using audiovisual methods results in 20% retention rates, and reading results in retention of about 10% of the material.

16.

What is the volumetric flow rate of a round duct measuring 10 inches in diameter with a measured flow rate of 462 fpm?

Use the formula: Q = V x A, where V = velocity of the air and A = cross-sectional area of the duct

  • 254 cfm

  • 366 cfm

  • 46 cfm

  • 188 cfm

Correct answer: 254 cfm

The volumetric flow rate, expressed in cubic feet per minute, can be found using the following calculation:

Q = V x A, where V = velocity of the air and A = cross-sectional area of the duct

Find the area of the circle. The diameter is 10 inches, so the radius is 10/2, which is 5 inches or 0.42 feet.

A = πrπ(0.422) = 0.1764π = 0.55 sf

Q = V x A = 462 fpm x 0.55 sf = 254 cfm

17.

Which type of hearing loss tends to FIRST occur at higher frequencies as a result of hazardous or excessive noise exposure?  

  • Sensorineural

  • Psychogenic

  • Conductive

  • Central Nervous System (CNS)

Correct answer: Sensorineural

Sensorineural hearing loss occurs in the inner ear where the fine hair cells are located in the organ of Corti.  It is caused by exposure to hazardous or excessive noise.  

Psychogenic hearing loss can result from severe emotional trauma and occurs in the mind.   

Conductive hearing loss is a loss in volume or loudness. It can result from physical blockage in the Eustachian tube, a build up of ear wax, or from damage to the tympanic membrane. 

Central Nervous System (CNS) hearing loss occurs between the brain and inner ear. It is not related to noise exposure and can have many causes.  

18.

What is the leading cause of fatalities in crane operations?

  • Being struck by an object/equipment

  • Tipping into excavation

  • Falling to a lower level

  • Transportation incidents

Correct answer: Being struck by an object/equipment

From 2011 to 2017, the Census of Fatal Occupational Injuries (CFOI) reported 297 total crane-related deaths, an average of 42 per year over this seven-year period. Just over half of all fatal crane injuries involved the worker being struck by an object or equipment. More than three-fifths of these cases (91 of 154) involved the worker being struck by a falling object or equipment; in 79 of these cases, the worker was struck by an object falling from a crane. 

One-third of all worker deaths involving cranes in 2011–17 involved workers in transportation and material moving occupations. (See OHSA Regional Instruction Directive CPL-04-00-016.9).

19.

To prevent workers from experiencing heat-related injuries, what type of administrative controls are used? 

  • Work/rest cycles

  • A good night's sleep

  • Establishing a rehabilitation area

  • Having medical personnel on standby to monitor personnel

Correct answer: Work/rest cycles

Depending on the amount of work being accomplished and the environmental temperatures, workers in hot environments need more break periods than unexposed workers. Rest breaks reduce the metabolic heat produced by the body during work and aid in cooling. When determining work/rest cycles, the Wet Bulb Globe Temperature (WBGT) index and the workload must be evaluated. Cooling the worker down and replenishing fluids are additional administrative controls imposed on employees working in hot environments.

A good night's sleep is important for overall health and well-being but is not an administrative control used to prevent heat-related illnesses or injuries. 

Establishing a rehabilitation area would be used to recover from injuries rather than serve as a preventative administrative control for heat-related illnesses or injuries. 

Having medical personnel on standby may be beneficial, but it is not an administrative control aimed at preventing heat-related illnesses or injuries; this is a reactive measure. 

20.

The primary objective of maintaining an audit program is to ensure the health and safety of all employees, contractors, and visitors. This is done by identifying and assessing hazards, developing controls to eliminate or mitigate hazards, implementing the appropriate controls, and what else? 

  • Supervising and evaluating hazard controls to determine if they are effective

  • Documenting the audit reports to hold management accountable

  • Identify unallocated resources for funding requests

  • Ensure proper documentation is maintained for regulatory inspections

Correct answer: Supervising and evaluating hazard controls to determine if they are effective

In addition to identifying hazards and preventing injuries or illnesses, the health and safety audit program should assist in determining whether significant progress is being made in the overall goals and objectives. A main purpose of measuring health and safety performance is to help an organization determine where it currently exists and to focus its efforts on where it wants to be.

The remaining answers can be productive outcomes of audits but are not related to their primary objectives.