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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-004) Version 1.0.7 Exam Questions

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1.

.vmdk files are commonly associated with what type of system?

  • VMware virtual machine

  • Hyper-V virtual machine

  • Docker container

  • runc container

Correct answer: VMware virtual machine

A .vmdk file is a disk file for VMware virtual machines. The comparable Hyper-V file is a .vhdx.

.vmdk files are not directly related to containers.

2.

What type of technology can divide network traffic into specific classes and prioritize them according to their service levels?

  • QoS

  • IoT

  • ICMP

  • Sysprep

Correct answer: QoS

Quality of Service (QoS) is the use of specialized technologies to manage and adjust network traffic by prioritizing specific high-performance applications and workloads.

IoT (Internet of Things) is a category that includes a wide range of connected "smart" devices. 

Sysprep is a Windows image preparation tool.

Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is a protocol used by ping and other commands to test network connectivity.

3.

Alex works on the cloud administration team at Acme Inc. A virtual server has been creating swap files that consume too much disk space. Alex is tasked with provisioning additional resources for the server. 

Which of the following will Alex need to increase to reduce the risk of page files being created going forward?

  • RAM

  • Disk

  • CPU

  • vCPU

Correct answer: RAM

Swap files are created on disk when all of a system's RAM is utilized. The swap file is used as virtual RAM. Therefore, to reduce the risk of swap files being created, additional RAM should be provisioned. 

Provisioning more of other resources (e.g., disk, CPU, vCPU) would not directly reduce the risk of swap files being created.

4.

Where is a swap file MOST likely to be created?

  • Disk

  • RAM

  • CPU cache

  • NIC

Correct answer: Disk

Swap files are created on disk when all of a system's RAM is utilized. The swap file is used as virtual RAM. 

A swap file would not typically be created in the CPU cache. 

A network interface card (NIC) is a network adapter, not a storage location.

5.

You are a healthcare provider running cloud applications that access private health information. 

Data on the cloud systems is classified with a "PHI" category if it includes personal health information. You want to ensure that only users with authorization to view health information can access data categorized as PHI. 

What type of access control should you put into place to ensure the correct access to the healthcare data?

  • Mandatory access control (MAC)

  • Discretionary access control (DAC)

  • Regulated access control (RAC)

  • Federated access control (FAC)

Correct answer: Mandatory access control (MAC)

Mandatory access control (MAC) allows data access to be restricted or allowed based on security levels of users and systems being accessed. The PHI data could be restricted to only being accessible by users with an associated security level. 

Discretionary access control (DAC) gives the data owner the power to grant or deny user permissions. DAC is used in industries where the data is highly regulated, such as healthcare and financial services.

Regulated access control (RAC) and federated access control (FAC) are not standard access control types.

6.

Which encryption technology is used for specific applications such as email and directory servers?

  • SSL/TLS

  • IPSec

  • GRE

  • LDAP

Correct answer: SSL/TLS

SSL/TLS protects network traffic at the application level. 

IPsec connects and protects at the host or network level.

GRE does not offer encryption and is often used in connection with IPsec.

LDAP is not encrypted by default. LDAPS (the S is for "secure") uses SSL/TLS encryption to improve security.

7.

A server Acme Inc. will use to run a hypervisor supports hyperthreading and will have four physical single-core CPUs. 

How many vCPUs can be represented to the systems that run on the server?

  • 8

  • 16

  • 64

  • 32

Correct answer: 8

Hyperthreading allows a single physical CPU to be represented as two vCPUs. 

Therefore, in this case, the correct answer is 8 because 4 (physical CPU) * 2 = 8.

8.

What is each item specifically selected and configured for backup called?

  • Object

  • Component

  • Configurable item

  • Node

Correct answer: Object

Organizations inventory their data assets and determine which ones should be backed up, how frequently, and when. These assets are known as backup objects.

The terms component, node, and configurable item (CI) are commonly used to refer to assets in other contexts, but in the context of backup, "object" is the most specific term.

9.

Troubleshooting connectivity issues is challenging since networks operate through a series of interdependencies with each other. 

Which of the following commands is commonly used to test network connectivity between two endpoints by sending ICMP echo requests?

  • ping

  • arp

  • nbtstat

  • curl

Correct answer: ping

ping is a popular command-line tool for testing network connectivity. A "ping" command sends an ICMP echo request from one system to another. 

None of the other commands listed fit this description. 

10.

What type of backup uses an outdated full backup and series of incremental backups to create a full backup?

  • Synthetic full backup

  • Differential backup

  • Application backup

  • Full increment backup

Correct answer: Synthetic full backup

A synthetic full backup uses an out-of-date full backup and incremental backups to create an up-to-date full backup. 

A differential backup only backs up changes since the last full backup. 

An application backup is a backup of a specific application at a specific point in time. 

Full increment backup is not a standard type of backup.

11.

Acme Inc. wants to add compute capacity to their private cloud system. To add the additional capacity, they deploy 10 new servers. 

This is an example of what type of scaling?

  • Horizontal scaling

  • Vertical scaling

  • IaC scaling

  • OVF scaling

Correct answer: Horizontal scaling

Horizontal scaling is achieved by adding additional servers to a system.

Vertical scaling is achieved by adding additional resources to a server(s) in a system.

"IaC scaling" and "OVF scaling" are not standard terms.

12.

Your network consists of Linux servers. What connectivity command would you use to query DNS name servers to learn the domain name and IP addresses for those servers?

  • dig

  • nstat

  • ipconfig

  • ifconfig

Correct answer: dig

The dig command is a tool for querying DNS name servers.

ipconfig (Windows) and ifconfig (Linux) are used for displaying and modifying information related to local network interfaces.

nstat is a distractor answer based on the nslookup and netstat commands.

13.

Who is responsible for end-user systems in a PaaS service?

  • Consumer

  • CSP

  • PaaS provider

  • PaaS manager

Correct answer: Consumer

In the shared responsibility model, consumers are responsible for data, end-user systems, and user and service account management for SaaS, IaaS, and PaaS platforms. 

The cloud service provider (CSP) typically has responsibilities up to the directory/identity infrastructure layer or "lower."

"PaaS provider" and "PaaS manager" are distractor answers.

14.

What command was MOST likely used to create the output below?

Server:  one.one.one.one
Address:  1.1.1.1

Non-authoritative answer:
Name:    example.com
Addresses:  2606:2800:21f:cb07:6820:80da:af6b:8b2c
         93.184.215.14

  • nslookup

  • dig

  • ping

  • route

Correct answer: nslookup

nslookup and dig are both commands that can query DNS information. The output in the question is the output of "dig example.com" run from a Windows command prompt. 

ping is used to check network connectivity between endpoints. 

route displays local routing table information.

15.

What environment is software tested in to check for potential unintended actions, faulty logic, and security vulnerabilities before deployment to production?

  • Quality assurance (QA)

  • Git

  • Acceptance

  • Code commit

Correct answer: Quality assurance (QA)

The quality assurance (QA) environment is used to test the application as a whole and execute test cases that the developers may not have anticipated.

Git is a version control system commonly used to help maintain source code. Developers use Git to commit code to a source repository. "Code commit" is a reference to this process. 

Acceptance is a distractor answer.

16.

Acme Inc. uses a canary deployment model. What will happen if there is an issue with a patch deployed to production and initial testing detects the problem?

  • Less than half of the systems will be affected

  • No systems will be affected

  • All systems will be affected

  • More than half of the systems will be affected

Correct answer: Less than half of the systems will be affected

With canary deployments, a small subset of systems is updated first to see if there are any problems with the changes. If the systems perform as expected, the rest of the updates are applied. If the systems do not work as expected, users can rollback.

Typically, initial updates are applied to much less than half of the systems in a canary deployment; therefore, more than zero but less than half of the systems would be affected in the scenario described in the question.

17.

An organization's employees need to access the Internet from their internal devices through the company firewall. 

What technique can the organization use to map multiple internal IP addresses to a single public IP address?

  • Port Address Translation (PAT)

  • Media access control (MAC)

  • Router Address Translation (RAT)

  • Internet Address Translation (IAT)

Correct answer: Port Address Translation (PAT)

PAT is used to translate private IP addresses into a public IP address via port numbers. Translating addresses from multiple devices to a single public IP address is a common use case for PAT. 

Media access control (MAC) is a layer 2 networking concept that does not deal with mapping private and public IP addresses. 

Internet Address Translation (IAT) and Router Address Translation (RAT) are distractor answers.

18.

Acme Inc. is just beginning to use cloud computing. They want their first project to be a cloud service model that provides them with control over database content and schemas but does not require them to perform operating system patching. 

Which cloud service model is BEST for these requirements?

  • PaaS

  • IaaS

  • SaaS

  • Public

Correct answer: PaaS

In a PaaS model, such as database as a service (DBaaS), the consumer is often fully or partially responsible for items such as database content and schemas, but the consumer is not responsible for operating system patching. 

With IaaS, the consumer is responsible for operating system patching.

With SaaS, the consumer does not have control over database schemas.

Public cloud is a deployment model, not a service model.

19.

Who is the individual ultimately responsible for the approval or rejection of a request for change?

  • Change manager

  • Change stakeholder

  • Change executive

  • Change leader

Correct answer: Change manager

The change manager is directly responsible for all the activities within the change management process. However, they engage other stakeholders as well as the change advisory board to ensure that the correct decision is being made.

20.

Your organization's backup administrator mentions that many backup jobs have been failing because they cannot complete in their scheduled time window and are terminated. The backup process and data volumes have not changed in the last year. 

The network and cloud administrator have validated that all infrastructure is operational, including storage, and no other systems have experienced performance degradation or outage. They point out that the transactional workloads and data transfer jobs are successfully completing.

What is a reasonable theory of probable cause in this scenario?

  • QoS settings for backups are low priority

  • Too many incremental backups have been stored

  • Too many snapshots have been stored

  • Too many full image copies have been stored

Correct answer: QoS settings for backups are low priority

Backup jobs tend to be less prioritized than customer-facing or user-facing jobs such as transactional or operational workloads. A reasonable theory is that the backup jobs have been assigned to a lower QoS and are being deprived of enough compute time and resources to complete.

All the other answers relate to storage, which was validated as being sufficient, given the information in the question.

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