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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-004) Version 2.0.1 Exam Questions

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1.

Acme Inc. is looking for low-cost connectivity to public cloud providers. They are willing to accept some unpredictability in performance to keep costs low. 

What solution is the BEST fit for these requirements?

  • Public internet

  • Using a dedicated connection

  • Renting bandwidth from other organizations using the same public cloud

  • Building their own global network

Correct answer: Public internet

The Internet is a shared global network with enormous bandwidth and capacity. Organizations can implement their own connections to a public cloud provider, but that is more expensive. 

Organizations typically do not allow other organizations to use their bandwidth for security reasons.

2.

Alex is a DevOps engineer at Acme Inc. Alex needs to automate the process of creating templates based on existing virtual machines (VMs) so new VMs can be created from those templates at a later date. 

What process should Alex automate?

  • VM cloning

  • VM snapshotting

  • VM RPM creation

  • VM flat file creation 

Correct answer: VM cloning 

A VM clone should be used to create a template for new VMs. 

A VM snapshot should be used to preserve the current state of a VM. 

RPM is a Linux package manager.

A flat file is a simple plaintext database-like file, such as a CSV file.

3.

Which memory virtualization technique allows a hypervisor to reclaim unused virtual machine memory?

  • Ballooning

  • Bursting

  • Transparent memory sharing

  • Compression

Correct answer: Ballooning

Ballooning is the process of a hypervisor reclaiming memory from virtual machines that are not using it. For example, a hypervisor may claim memory from an idle virtual machine and lend it to one that needs it. The "lending" virtual machine hypervisors place their available memory pages into a balloon. When the "requesting" virtual machine no longer needs the additional memory, the ballooning process releases memory back to the contributing virtual machines.

Bursting is when a resource increases memory utilization at or near its defined maximum level. Minimum and maximum memory levels are configured using a virtualization technique known as dynamic memory. 

Compression decreases the size of data for more efficient storage or transmission. 

Transparent memory sharing enables virtual machines to share memory.

4.

Acme Inc. develops cloud software deployed across multiple server clusters in the cloud. When it is time to do an update, Acme Inc. first updates 10% of the servers and only proceeds with additional updates if there are no unexpected issues. 

This is an example of what type of deployment strategy?

  • Canary

  • Blue

  • Smoke

  • Green

Correct answer: Canary

With canary deployments, a small subset of systems is updated first to see if there are any problems with the changes. If the systems perform as expected, the rest of the updates are applied. If the systems do not work as expected, users can rollback.

Blue, smoke, and green are distractor answers. Blue and green are a reference to "blue-green" deployments. Smoke is a reference to smoke testing.

5.

Which of the following is NOT a detail outlined in a workflow task?

  • Budget required to complete the task

  • Personnel required to complete the task

  • Technology required to complete the task

  • Tools required to complete the task

Correct answer: Budget required to complete the task

The goal of a workflow is to identify what needs to be done, who is going to do it, and how they will do it. The task details in a workflow explain the what, who, and how, as well as the dependencies.

Budget information is not required to inform employees how to do their work most efficiently and effectively.

6.

In which of the following cloud service models is the cloud service provider responsible for the data center hardware running the hypervisors?

  • IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS

  • IaaS and PaaS only

  • PaaS only

  • IaaS only

Correct answer: IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS

The cloud service provider is responsible for hardware required to run systems that deliver cloud services in the SaaS, PaaS, and IaaS models.

7.

Using PKI, what is needed to decrypt a message encrypted with a public key?

  • The associated private key

  • The same public key

  • A strong random number generator

  • The CA's public key

Correct answer: The associated private key

With public key infrastructure (PKI), an associated private key is needed to decrypt data that was encrypted with a public key. 

A certificate authority's (CA's) key or random number generator is not required in this case.

8.

You want to prevent the data on a hard drive from being used on another system. 

What technology enables a processor to authenticate a hard drive and prevent it from being used on another system?

  • TPM

  • FDE

  • PDE

  • SED

Correct answer: TPM

Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is implemented through a processor on the system motherboard that authenticates an encrypted hard drive to the system. If the hard drive has come from another system, it will not be authenticated and, therefore, cannot be used.

Full disk encryption (FDE) is the process of encrypting drives and removable storage media. With FDE, files are encrypted at rest and decrypted when they are opened (e.g., after a user logs in). 

A self-encrypting drive (SED) is a drive that performs hardware disk encryption and does not keep the decryption key in memory. 

Personal Data Encryption (PDE) is a Windows technology for file-level encryption.

9.

Acme Inc. wants to determine how current resource utilization compares to baseline metrics for CPU utilization, disk IOPS, and memory utilization on a set of hypervisors in their private cloud. 

What reference point should they compare current readings to?

  • Target object baselines

  • IaC targets

  • Resource standard report

  • IaC object report

Correct answer: Target object baselines

Target object baselines are specific baseline measurements for objects such as CPU and memory utilization. 

The other terms are distractor answers and not standard terms related to resource provisioning or baselining.

10.

What type of cloud model is a pool of computing resources that is delivered over the Internet by a third-party provider and used by many organizations?

  • Public

  • Hybrid

  • Private

  • Community

Correct answer: Public

The public cloud is a set of computing services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet that are available to any organization that wants to use or purchase those services.

Private clouds are dedicated to one organization. 

Hybrid cloud describes the use of both public and private clouds. 

Community cloud is a cloud dedicated to a specific group of organizations with a shared objective and similar requirements.

11.

What type of change occurs in a P2V migration?

  • Physical server data is moved to virtual servers

  • Virtual server data is moved to physical servers

  • HDDs are replaced with SSDs

  • SSDs are replaced with RAID-enabled HDDs

Correct answer: Physical server data is moved to virtual servers

Physical to virtual (P2V) data migrations move data and systems from being hosted on bare metal physical servers to virtual servers. 

The underlying disks used by the systems (such as HDDs or SSDs) do not determine whether a migration is P2V.

12.

What level of drive redundancy does RAID 0 provide?

  • None

  • N+1

  • N+N

  • N+2

Correct answer: None

Redundant array of independent disks (RAID) 0 does not provide redundancy. If a drive fails in a RAID 0 configuration, data will be lost. 

Therefore, all the "N+" answers are incorrect.

13.

Which of the following public cloud service models can be described as providing operating system as a service, meaning the cloud provider is responsible for everything from underlying hardware to operating system, and the users build applications on top of the cloud service?

  • PaaS

  • IaaS

  • SaaS

  • XaaS

Correct answer: PaaS

Platform-as-a-service (PaaS) is a cloud service model designed for developers to build applications. PaaS can be described as operating system as a service because the cloud provider is responsible for everything up to the operating system level. That means users do not need to worry about maintenance tasks like patching virtual machines. 

SaaS goes beyond PaaS and makes the cloud provider responsible for the application level as well.

IaaS leaves the operating system level the responsibility of the user.

XaaS is a generic term meaning anything as a service.

14.

You are a systems administrator at Acme Inc. You want to receive an alert when disk utilization on your cloud servers exceeds 80%.

What type of configuration should you make to specify the 80% value?

  • Threshold

  • Baseline

  • Template

  • IO

Correct answer: Threshold

A threshold defines a limit of some sort for alerts and notifications.

A baseline captures normal behavior over a period of time.

A template is a standardized configuration.

IO (input/output) is an acronym commonly used to describe read/write operations.

15.

How are variables that can customize the behavior of Docker containers stored?

  • Environment variables

  • OCI table

  • CSV table

  • OCI variable

Correct answer: Environment variables

Docker and other containers use environment variables to store information that can customize how the container behaves at runtime. 

All the other answers are distractor answers.

16.

A product manager was given metrics from a system deployed in a test environment. They indicated that they needed the metrics from a production system instead. 

Why would the product manager want network metrics from the production system versus the test system?

  • The production environment is where the users do their daily work and is the true indicator of performance

  • Test systems do not use a network

  • Test networks do not measure bytes sent or received

  • The test environment is always three times the size of the production environment

Correct answer: The production environment is where the users do their daily work and is the true indicator of performance

Test systems are set up to be an exact replica (meaning they use the same network and equipment and track the same metrics) of the production environment but at a smaller scale. The production system is the true indicator of user workload on a daily basis.

17.

At what stage of the CI/CD process is code compiled into a package that can be installed on a system?

  • Build

  • Binary

  • Artifact

  • Container

Correct answer: Build

The stage of the CI/CD process where source code is compiled into an installable package is the build stage. 

The installable package may be referred to as a binary, artifact, container, or other name.

18.

You do not want to incur the cost of storing all your data in the most expensive storage because, over time, data becomes less frequently accessed. Typically, once data is over a year old, it is accessed less than twice per year. 

What storage provisioning strategy should you use to strike a balance between performance, accessibility, and cost?

  • Storage tiers

  • RAID classes

  • Caching

  • Thick provisioning

Correct answer: Storage tiers

Storage tiers allow you to combine different classes of storage with different cost structures into a single storage pool. Data that is requested often may be stored in higher, more expensive, higher-speed storage. Data that is requested less frequently can be stored in less expensive tiers.

RAID classes would help define different levels of fault tolerance, but would not directly address the case of optimizing storage access based on usage. 

Caching is useful for frequently accessed data, but would not directly address the use case of infrequently accessed data. 

Thick provisioning allocates all the defined storage capacity to a given drive upon creation.

19.

Which of the following is MOST likely to be used by a software program or service to communicate with another service?

  • API

  • GUI

  • CLI

  • SEiM

Correct answer: API

An application programming interface (API) is a software interface that enables programmatic communications between different systems. For example, many modern web services expose a RESTful API that can be accessed using HTTP methods. 

A graphical user interface (GUI) and command line interface (CLI) are more typically used by humans.

A security information and event management (SIEM) is used to aggregate logs and other security information.

20.

You are a security consultant for Acme Inc. They ask you to recommend a security appliance that can detect and block potential network intrusions. 

Which of the following is the BEST choice to meet the requirements?

  • IPS

  • IDS

  • DMZ

  • WAF

Correct answer: IPS

An intrusion prevention system (IPS) analyzes packets and can also stop the packet from being delivered based on what kind of potential attack it detects, helping stop the attack.

An intrusion detection system (IDS) is similar but does not attempt to prevent or block the potential attack. 

A web application firewall (WAF) is used to protect against common layer 7 (application layer) attacks like injection attacks. 

A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a network segment that separates a trusted internal network from an untrusted external network.

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