NSCA CSCS Exam Questions

Correct answer: Flexion

In the starting position for the stiff-legged deadlift, the knees should be slightly bent (flexed) and should stay slightly bent throughout the entire movement, including the downward and the upward movement phases.

It is a common movement mistake to allow the knees to bend more as the bar is lowered (downward phase). This should happen in a standard deadlift, but this should not happen in the stiff-legged deadlift. The lifter should prevent the knees from straightening out or bending more while performing this movement.

Correct answer: Inflammatory response phase

After an injury, the damaged tissue goes through specific phases of healing. The first phase following an injury is the inflammatory response phase. Inflammation is necessary and encourages healing, which needs an environment that promotes tissue generation. During this phase, the primary goal of rehabilitation is to prevent any disruption of new tissue, which typically requires resting the injured area.

The inflammatory response phase is followed by the fibroblastic repair phase and then the maturation-remodeling phase. The treatment goals of these phases are, respectively, to prevent atrophy and deterioration of the injured area, and to increase the function of new tissue to prepare to return to training.

Correct answer: Behind the heel that is the farthest back upon landing

The standing long jump test is a measure of maximal power. When an athlete performs the standing long jump test, a marker is placed where the athlete lands, and then the jump distance is measured.

The marker should be placed behind the heel of the foot that is farthest back upon landing. This measures the farthest mark that the athlete's entire body traveled on the jump.

Correct answer: Bench press

1RM testing should involve core exercises that utilize many large muscle groups and at least two joints. For an archer, the back muscles and shoulder muscles are used to a high degree, so it may be tempting to answer with "bent-over rows" or "lateral raises". However, lateral raises are a single-joint exercise, and bent-over rows could put the athlete's lower back at risk during testing. Therefore—in terms of safety and validity—the bench press is the best option. 

Correct answer: Pronated / Supinated 

The lying barbell triceps extension involves lying supine on a bench and reaching the arms up toward the ceiling. The lifter then bends and straightens their elbows to bring the bar toward their forehead and back up toward the ceiling. The lifter should use a pronated grip.

The spotter should stand close to the athlete's head, facing the athlete. The spotter should first use an alternated grip to hand the barbell to the lifter. Then, throughout the movement (including the downward movement phase), the spotter should keep their hands in a supinated position with their palms close to and underneath the barbell.

When all reps have been completed, the spotter will take the barbell from the lifter using an alternated grip.

Correct answer: Intersubject variability

There are several types of variability that can decrease the reliability of a test: intrasubject variability, interrater reliability, and intrarater variability.

Intersubject variability would refer to differences in performance between the subjects. This is expected (or else every athlete would score the same) and has no bearing on the reliability of a test.

Intrasubject variability is a lack of consistent performance by the person being tested. Interrater reliability measures the consistency between different raters over time. Intrarater variability refers to inconsistent scoring by a given tester.

Correct answer: 18"

Depth jumps place significant stress on the body on landing, and therefore, it is extremely important to pay attention to the quality of the jump. Athletes performing depth jumps should be very well-trained and thoroughly understand how to absorb force safely and appropriately upon landing and be able to land using proper landing position.

The larger the athlete, the more stress the body undergoes on landings from depth jumps. Therefore, it is recommended that heavier athletes (over 220 pounds) use no more than an 18" box for depth jumps.

Correct answer: Knowledge of results

When a coach informs an athlete about how quickly they have completed a drill, this is an example of Knowledge of Results (KR). 

KR is a type of augmented feedback that provides information on the outcome of a movement or action, focusing on the end result rather than the specifics of how the movement was performed. In this case, the timing of the drill completion is the result, and the coach's feedback helps the athlete understand their performance in terms of speed, which can be crucial for goal setting and motivation.

Other feedback types include:

• Knowledge of Performance (KP): This type of augmented feedback focuses on the process of the movement rather than the outcome. KP provides information about the quality of the movement or the specific aspects of the performance, such as technique or form. For example, a coach might give feedback on an athlete's running technique rather than the time it took to complete the run.
• Augmented Feedback: This is a broader category that includes both KR and KP. Augmented feedback is information provided by an external source (like a coach, video, or biofeedback device) that supplements the athlete's own intrinsic feedback, offering additional insight into performance outcomes or performance processes.
• Intrinsic Feedback: This refers to the sensory information that athletes receive naturally as a result of their movements, coming from internal sources such as proprioceptors, the vestibular system, and visual perception. Intrinsic feedback allows athletes to gauge their performance based on the feel of the movement, balance, muscle tension, and other internal cues.

In this scenario, the coach's feedback on the drill completion time is a clear instance of knowledge of results, providing the athlete with specific outcome-based information that can guide practice and improvement efforts.

Correct answer: Eccentric plantarflexion

As an athlete strikes the ground in the stance (support) phase of sprinting, part of the force applied to the ground is absorbed through an eccentric plantarflexion movement of the ankle. The ankle gets pushed into a more dorsiflexed position during this landing, but the action involved is actually a lowering of the heel, and the calf is active during this movement.

This landing represents the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle (SSC), where the agonist muscle becomes stretched. The agonist action in the ankle during the subsequent push-off becomes concentric plantarflexion. The flight phase should include active dorsiflexion, but the stance phase involves active plantarflexion.

Correct answer: An almond flour bagel with a ranking of 45

The GI is a measure of the digestion and absorption rate of carbohydrates, and foods are ranked on a 100-point scale. Foods with a higher GI (closer to 100), such as sweetened foods and bread, are digested and absorbed quickly, raising blood glucose and insulin levels faster than lower glycemic foods, which also have a smaller impact on blood glucose. Consuming carbohydrates along with other macronutrients alters the GI.

• Low glycemic foods have a GI ranking of 55 or less
• Medium glycemic foods have a GI ranking between 55 and 69
• High glycemic foods have a GI ranking of 70 or more

Correct answer: Summation

When an action potential activates the motor unit, the resulting contraction is called a twitch. When the muscle contracts, all of the fibers within the motor unit contract; this is known as the all-or-none principle. 

For a muscle contraction to occur, the myosin cross-bridges within the sarcomere pull the actin filaments inward. This pulling action is known as the power stroke.

After a twitch occurs, the muscle begins to relax. If a second twitch is triggered before the muscle completely relaxes, this results in a summation of the two twitches. A summation can result in greater force production than a single twitch.

Correct answer: 3 to 4 feet

Racks and platforms should have enough room between them to allow for safe lifting and spotting, as well as to provide sufficient room to prevent injury of bystanders in case someone were to fall. A minimum distance of 3 to 4 feet is sufficient.

Weightlifting racks should also be bolted to the floor for increased safety. Portable racks should be moved out of the way when not in use.

Correct answer: On the ground, between the feet

In the starting position for a one-arm dumbbell snatch, the dumbbell should be placed on the ground between the feet. This is the same starting position, whether performing the lift with the right or left arm.

Correct answer: Having athletes change direction in response to a whistle and pointing

Agility drills are valuable in improving athletes' ability to change direction. However, in a game setting, athletes must also react to external stimuli. Simply practicing a set pattern agility drill does not train this perceptual-cognitive ability. 

A simple way to add this element to training is to require the athlete to respond to an external cue, such as a whistle, a command, or a light. The athlete cannot pre-determine their actions and must instead react quickly to the whistle blow. This type of training can help athletes be better prepared to react in game situations.

Olympic lifts with sensory deprivation would likely be dangerous, and may pose more risk than reward. Plus, this would be unlikely to increase perceptual-cognitive ability. Box jumps would increase explosive power. 

Correct answer: Her elbows need to be higher, and her knees need to be more in line with her toes.

Donna's torso position and depth are correct for this portion of the front squat. However, her elbows should be higher throughout the entire movement. Raising her elbows so that her forearms are as close to parallel to the floor as possible will help Donna keep the bar more securely on her shoulders and provide better control of the bar. It will also ensure that the load is distributed onto her hips and legs instead of holding the weight in her arms.

Plus, she is demonstrating valgus collapse at the knees. Therefore, she must line her knees up with her ankles and toes to correct this.

Correct answer: Catecholamines

Catecholamines, which include hormones such as epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline), are secreted by the adrenal medulla and play a crucial role in the acute expression of strength and power. 

They act as central motor stimulators, enhancing the recruitment of motor units in muscles, which are vital for generating force quickly and powerfully. Additionally, as peripheral vascular dilators, catecholamines increase blood flow to active muscles, ensuring a sufficient supply of oxygen and nutrients during intense physical activities. This combination of effects supports improved performance in tasks requiring strength and power.

Other hormones mentioned have different roles:

• Testosterone: This is a steroid hormone known for its anabolic effects, such as promoting muscle growth and strength, but it does not have the immediate, acute effects on motor stimulation and vascular dilation associated with catecholamines.
• Cortisol: Often referred to as a stress hormone, cortisol has catabolic effects, such as breaking down tissue and increasing blood glucose levels. Unlike catecholamines, cortisol's primary role is not in acute motor stimulation or vascular dilation during exercise.
• IGF-1: Insulin-like Growth Factor 1 (IGF-1) is involved in growth and development and has anabolic effects similar to those of growth hormone with which it is closely associated. It supports muscle growth and recovery but does not directly act as a central motor stimulator or peripheral vascular dilator in the acute expression of strength and power like catecholamines.

Catecholamines are unique in their ability to rapidly prepare the body for high-intensity, powerful movements through their stimulatory and vasodilatory effects, making them essential for activities requiring immediate strength and power output.

Correct answer: Steady state

Oxygen uptake (VO2) is a person's ability to take in oxygen and deliver it to working muscles. With the onset of activity, oxygen uptake initially increases, but then, when exercise is low-intensity, and this intensity remains constant, the body will reach what is known as steady state, where the (elevated) oxygen uptake remains at the same level for the remaining duration of training.

EPOC (excess post-exercise oxygen consumption) and oxygen debt are different terms used to describe the oxygen uptake required after training to return the body to the pre-exercise state.

Correct answer: No more than a quarter squat

The log clean and press is a nontraditional training method typically used in strongman training but starting to be incorporated into the training of regular athletes. For best results, the dip shouldn't exceed a quarter squat.

Correct answer: Needs analysis

In terms of program design, the foundational task for a strength and conditioning professional is to conduct a needs analysis. This initial step is pivotal, as it lays the groundwork for a tailored training program that aligns with both the athlete's and the sport's specific demands. The needs analysis is a two-step process that encompasses:

• Evaluation of the Sport's Requirements: This part of the needs analysis involves understanding the sport's unique characteristics, including the specific physical, technical, and tactical demands. It looks into the common movements, skills, energy system utilization, and injury risk factors associated with the sport. This evaluation helps in identifying the critical physical qualities that the training program should aim to develop to enhance sport-specific performance.
• Assessment of the Athlete: This involves a detailed examination of the athlete's current physical and psychological state, including their training background, injury history, current fitness levels, and any specific individual needs. This assessment is essential for creating a program that is not only effective in improving performance but also safe and tailored to the athlete's current condition and capabilities.

The needs analysis integrates the following components into the program design:

• Profile: Creating a sport and athlete profile helps in identifying the key areas of focus for the training program. For the sport, it involves the common movements, skills, and energy systems used. For the athlete, it includes their physical attributes, technical skills, and any other relevant characteristics that might influence training.
• Training Status: Evaluating the athlete's training status is crucial for understanding their readiness for various training loads and intensities. This includes their training history, level of conditioning, and any recent or chronic injuries, which will influence the design and progression of the training program.
• Goals: Setting clear, specific, and achievable goals is a critical outcome of the needs analysis. These goals should be informed by both the sport's demands and the athlete's current status and aspirations. They provide a direction for the training program and criteria for measuring progress.

By conducting a thorough needs analysis that considers the sport's profile, the athlete's training status, and their goals, a strength and conditioning professional can develop a comprehensive and individualized training program that optimally supports the athlete's development and performance enhancement in their specific sport.

Correct answer: Reciprocal and autogenic inhibition

There are various types of PNF stretching, all of which involve alternating between a passive stretch performed by a partner and some type of muscle action, either isometric or concentric.

The following steps describe how to perform the hold-relax with agonist contraction PNF stretch for the hamstring:

1. The person being stretched lies supine
2. The partner lifts their leg into hip flexion to provide a passive 10-second pre-stretch of the hamstring
3.  The partner applies pressure by gently pushing the leg toward the head of the person being stretched, while the person being stretched isometrically contracts the hamstring to prevent the leg from moving
4. The person being stretched actively contracts their hip flexors, increasing the ROM
5. The person being stretched relaxes while the partner provides another passive stretch

The active contraction of the hamstring results in autogenic inhibition, which describes the relaxation of the hamstring as a result of the tension in (activation of) the hamstring immediately before the passive stretch.

The active contraction of the hip flexors results in reciprocal inhibition, which describes the relaxation of the hamstring as a result of the tension in (activation of) the hamstring. 

The stretch reflex should be avoided during stretching activities. When a stretch is applied too quickly, the muscle spindles are activated and can cause the muscle to contract, preventing any increased ROM.