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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

AAVSB VTNE Exam Questions

Page 6 of 58

101.

What is the medical term used to describe a patient with a broad, short skull?

  • Brachycephalic

  • Hydrocephalic

  • Dolichocephalic

  • Mesaticephalic

Correct answer: Brachycephalic

Brachycephalic is used to describe a patient with a broad, short skull with triangular nasal bones. The prefix brachy- is derived from the Greek root form for "short". Examples of brachycephalic dog breeds include the English bulldog, pug, Boston terrier, and Pekingese.

Hydrocephalic is a descriptive term for the diagnosis of hydrocephalus (excessive fluid accumulation deep within the brain). Dolichocephalic is used to describe a facial anatomy that is long and narrow. Examples of long-faced breeds include collies and German shepherds. Mesaticephalic is used to describe a head shape with balanced proportions.

102.

Which choice correctly describes a therapeutic use for albuterol?

  • Bronchodilation

  • Increase in gastrointestinal absorption

  • Antiemetic

  • Antimicrobial

Correct answer: Bronchodilation

Albuterol is a bronchodilator (dilates the airways), used most commonly to treat cough, asthma, and bronchospasm. It is typically administered by inhalation, but oral formulations are available.

Albuterol does not increase gastrointestinal absorption, work as an antiemetic (decrease nausea), or have antimicrobial (treats infections) properties.

103.

Refractometers are used to measure which of the following?

  • Urine specific gravity and serum protein concentration

  • Urine specific gravity and hemoglobin concentration

  • Red blood cell indices and plasma protein concentration

  • Red blood cell indices and hemoglobin concentration

Correct answer: Urine specific gravity and serum protein concentration

Refractometers are used to measure urine specific gravity and plasma/serum protein concentration. These two measurement scales are listed separately on the refractometer.

Automated analyzers are used to measure red blood cell indices and hemoglobin concentration.

104.

A new client has a lot of questions about dog nutrition. She is very understandably confused, with all the foods available and all the commercials and ads that claim false information, like all by-products are bad, etc.

The client, a human dietitian, asks how much of the dog’s diet is actually used as energy. What do you tell her?

  • 50-80%

  • 30-40%

  • 40-75%

  • 24-50%

Correct answer: 50-80%

For dogs and cats, approximately 50-80% of their diet on a dry matter basis will be used for energy. They will utilize the various components—proteins, fats, and carbs—for energy provision.

It is only one factor out of many that helps determine good quality pet food. Still, it is valuable for a dietician to know and understand.

105.

Whipworms are a common parasitic infection causing diarrhea in finisher pigs. The clinical signs of whipworms include which of the following?

  • Anorexia, mucoid or bloody diarrhea, dehydration, and death

  • Anorexia, weight loss, melena, and anemia

  • Dehydration, emaciation, septicemia, and hepatitis

  • Vomiting, diarrhea, emaciation, and dehydration

Correct answer: Anorexia, mucoid or bloody diarrhea, dehydration, and death

Whipworms, also called Trichuris suis, are a common cause of diarrhea in grower and finisher pigs. There is considerable overlap in the clinical signs of infectious diseases of the gastrointestinal tract in pigs. Clinical signs associated with whipworms include anorexia, bloody or mucoid diarrhea, dehydration, and death. Whipworms live in the large intestine, so do not produce signs associated with the liver (hepatitis) or upper gastrointestinal tract (vomiting, melena).

Whipworms can be prevented through sanitation measures and prophylactic anthelmintics.

Whipworms can sometimes be diagnosed by fecal floatation, but since clinical signs are present prior to ova shedding, necropsy may be necessary.

106.

What is the appropriate endotracheal tube size range for foals?

  • 9 to 16 mm tube

  • 6 to 14 mm tube

  • 9 to 18 mm tube

  • 7 to 12  mm tube

Correct answer: 9 to 16 mm tube

Foals utilize endotracheal tubes ranging in size from 9 to 16 mm.

Swine utilize endotracheal tubes ranging in size from 6 to 14 mm.

Calves utilize endotracheal tubes ranging in size from 9 to 18 mm.

Sheep and goats utilize endotracheal tubes ranging in size from 7 to 12 mm.

107.

What is the standard pressure for a full oxygen cylinder?

  • 2,200 psi

  • 5,200 psi

  • 1,200 psi

  • 3,200 psi

Correct answer: 2,200 psi

Medical oxygen is contained in a green (United States) or white (international) cylinder which has a standard full pressure of 2,200 psi. Once the oxygen exits the cylinder through the regulator, the pressure drops to between 40 and 50 psi.

108.

What red blood cell abnormality is described by macrocytosis, also called macrocythemia?

  • Increased red blood cell volume

  • Shrinking of red blood cells

  • Abnormally small red blood cells

  • Variable red blood cell size

Correct answer: Increased red blood cell volume

Macrocytosis is a term for increased mean corpuscular volume (MCV), or enlargement of red blood cells (RBCs). Macrocytic red blood cells often result from regenerative anemia.

Pyknosis is a term for shrinking cells. Microcytosis is a condition in which red blood cells are abnormally small. Anisocytosis refers to variable red blood cell sizes.

109.

Under what circumstances would a technician be asked to reach for atipamezole?

  • Anesthetic/sedative reversal

  • To induce vomiting

  • Airway dilation

  • Local anesthesia

Correct answer: Anesthetic/sedative reversal

Atipamezole is an adrenergic receptor antagonist used to reverse the effects of the alpha-2 adrenergic agonist dexmedetomidine.

Apomorphine is an emetic. Terbutaline, Albuterol, or Aminophyline are examples of bronchodilators. Lidocaine is a local anesthetic.

110.

How is parvovirus spread from one puppy to another?

  • Exposure to infected feces

  • Exposure to infected urine

  • Exposure to infected blood

  • Exposure to infected saliva

Correct answer: Exposure to infected feces

Parvovirus is spread through fecal-oral transmission, meaning animals lick or ingest surfaces contaminated by feces containing the virus. It can remain infectious for months in contaminated environments.

Clinical signs of parvovirus include loss of appetite, diarrhea, vomiting, fever, lethargy, abdominal pain, and septic shock.

111.

How many types of muscles are found in the body?

  • Three

  • Four

  • Five

  • Six

Correct answer: Three

The three types of muscle tissue are skeletal, visceral (smooth), and cardiac:

  • Skeletal muscles are composed of large cells and are consciously controlled.
  • Smooth muscles have involuntary movement and are made up of smaller, smoother cells.
  • Cardiac muscle is only found in the heart and is composed of small cells with only one nucleus.

112.

Where is a chest tube normally placed in a canine patient?

  • 8th intercostal space

  • 2nd intercostal space

  • 5th intercostal space

  • 10th intercostal space

Correct answer: 8th intercostal space

When a chest tube (thoracic drain) is used for drainage in a canine patient, it is generally placed in the 7th, 8th, or 9th intercostal space.

The chest wall should be clipped of hair and scrubbed with antiseptic solutions. The patient is placed in lateral recumbency. The drain should enter the skin surface at the 10th or 11th intercostal space, then tunnel subcutaneously and penetrate the chest wall at the 7th, 8th, or 9th intercostal space.

113.

You are on a farm call with your veterinarian. It is a new horse owner, and the owner adopted a mare and her foal from a U.S. Humane Society hoarding situation. The animals have not had sufficient or appropriate vaccinations or preventative care for their ages. You, therefore, are reviewing vaccination recommendations with the owner. You start with vaccines suited for the foal. This provides you with a great opportunity to educate the owner on various diseases, some of which are infectious to people, as well as how they are transmitted. Additionally, this discussion permits vectorborne disease discussion and preventative measures education.

All of the following vaccinations are core vaccines in foals, except:

  • Rotavirus

  • West Nile Virus (WNV)

  • Rabies

  • Tetanus

Correct answer: Rotavirus

Numerous vaccines are available for foals. Some are recommended based on lifestyle and life stage (vary with the animal's age), and vary based on the vaccination status of the mare.

Core vaccinations are recommended/required for animals in areas where diseases are endemic. This includes legally required vaccinations  and vaccinations for highly contagious diseases and/or for conditions that pose a high risk of serious illness. These vaccines have high levels of efficacy and benefits documented.

Core vaccines, though when they are administered vary by age, include:

  • Tetanus
  • Eastern and western equine encephalomyelitis (EEE/WEE)
  • Rabies
  • West Nile Virus (WNV)

The remaining vaccines are risk-based and vary based on regional disease prevalence, individual animal risks, and populations of concern:

  • Anthrax
  • Botulism
  • Equine Herpes Virus (EHV)
  • Equine Viral Arteritis (EVA)
  • Equine influenza
  • Potomac Horse Fever (PHF)
  • Strangles (Streptococcus equi)

One vaccination is not recommended for use in foals, and that is rotavirus.

114.

When monitoring a horse under anesthesia, we normally see normal sinus rhythm (NSR), but athletic horses can also demonstrate which of the following?

  • Second-degree block

  • Third-degree block

  • Atrial fibrillation

  • Tachyarrhythmia

Correct answer: Second-degree block

Dogs and cats demonstrate NSR under anesthesia, and dogs can also normally display a sinus arrhythmia. Horses, while generally speaking, demonstrate NSR; when very athletic, they can sometimes manifest with a first- or second-degree atrioventricular block. Generally, no treatment is warranted, and it resolves without event. Still, care needs to be made to ensure that all other monitoring parameters remain stable, including the patient.

All other listed options are abnormal, and action should be taken to address these findings.

115.

Which of the following anesthetic agents causes cardiovascular stimulation, rather than depression?

  • Ketamine

  • Xylazine

  • Morphine

  • Isoflurane

Correct answer: Ketamine

Animals anesthetized with ketamine may have stronger pulses or a rapid heart rate, even when under anesthesia. Adverse effects include respiratory depression, cardiac arrhythmias, and increased intracranial pressure.

Xylazine, morphine, and isoflurane cause cardiovascular depression, not stimulation.

116.

All of the following would be examples of causes of milking avoidance by a cow, except:

  • Increased milk production

  • Changes in handling practices

  • Changes in the location of entry or side of the entry for milking

  • Pain

Correct answer: Increased milk production

Milking causes oxytocin release and subsequent milk let-down. Milk let-down is partly why milking animals generally are agreeable to routine milking practices, and it generally provides a positive classic conditioned response to milking.

Cows who previously tolerated milking well who balk at it or resist suddenly, may have underlying health problems such as mastitis, orthopedic issues such as arthritis and pain, ulcers, or mastitis, among others.

Non-medical related causes of milking avoidance may include changes in milking practices such as how the animal is handled, the shape of the handling system, the appearance of the equipment or type of equipment, changing feeding patterns during milking, and even just changing the direction the cow enters the milking stations or where they enter.

Milk production quantities in and of themselves will not likely cause avoidance. However, various medical conditions can contribute to decreased quantities which could then cause avoidance.

117.

Which route of administration describes the application to surfaces of the skin?

  • Topical

  • Intramuscular

  • Parenteral

  • Subcutaneous

Correct answer: Topical

  • Topical: Applied to body surfaces; includes gels, foams, liquids, sprays, creams, powders, and ointments. Note: Transmucosal is the topical administration to the mucous membranes (gums). 
  • Parenteral: Non-orally administered medications, via injection (can be IM, IO, IV, or SQ)
  • Subcutaneous (SQ or SC): Injected within the fat layer just below the skin
  • Intramuscular (IM): Injected into a muscle

118.

Three rooted teeth are found in which region of the mouth of adult dogs?

  • Maxillary premolars and molars

  • Mandibular premolars and molars

  • Incisors

  • Canines

Correct answer: Maxillary premolars and molars

There are three teeth in the adult dog with three roots: The fourth premolar and the first and second molars of the maxilla.

Mandibular premolars and molars all have two roots, with the exception of the first premolar and third molar, which have single roots. All incisors and canine teeth have single roots.

119.

It is essential for you to understand what pH represents physiologically in the body. You have obtained the patient's arterial blood gas. After doing this, you evaluate the results and present them to the veterinarian. When discussing what you are finding, you assess the patient's blood pH, determining it to be 7.165.

You have determined that the pH is, in fact, what?

  • Acidic and abnormal

  • Acidic and normal

  • Alkaline and normal 

  • Neutral 

Correct answer: Acidic and abnormal

pH simply means the relative acidity or alkalinity of a specific thing, such as blood. A normal pH ranges from 0 to 14. 

A pH level above 7.0 is alkaline, not acidic. A pH level below 7.0 is acidic, and a pH level of 7.0 is neutral. However, it is critical to know that the normal blood pH is 7.4 and the significance of acidic vs. alkaline blood in the body.

The respiratory system partially regulates acid-base balance through its influence on the levels of CO2 in the blood. The higher the CO2, the more acidic and lower the pH will become. The rate of breathing adjusts CO2 levels. If a patient is in respiratory distress, has a metabolic disease, or a combination of factors, this can prevent the body from maintaining homeostasis and lower or elevate the pH. Other mediators of pH include chemical buffers, including bicarbonate, hemoglobin, phosphate, and the renal system. 

The lower the blood pH, the worse the prognosis may become. Values under 7.0 are extremely dangerous and not normally compatible with life.

This patient has acidic blood, which is lower than normal blood. All other responses are, thus, incorrect.

120.

When communicating with staff and clients, we have various forms of communication, including verbal and non-verbal. Non-verbal communication can include a wide array of factors, such as posture, hand gestures, eye contact (or lack thereof), spatial cues (e.g., personal space), and vocal cues.

All of the following are examples of vocal characterizer cues, except:

  • Emotional tone

  • Voice pitch

  • Volume of speech

  • Rate of speech

Correct answer: Emotional tone

While the emotional tone can relay important communication messages, such as laughing, crying, smiling, and others, these act as emotional characterizers, while vocal characterizers include:

  • Voice pitch: By expressing variation in pitch, you show interest and enthusiasm rather than a monotone, which may suggest disinterest.
  • Speech rate: Speaking too slowly or rapidly can cause the listener to lose what is being said, lose interest, be unable to follow, and lead to miscommunication.
  • Speech volume: If you speak loudly and excitedly, this may be considered insecurity or tension. However, it could also show enthusiasm and support. It could also be misconstrued as anger or irritation. If you speak very quietly, it may force the listener to listen more closely, but could also lead to missed information.
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