×

Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

ACSM-CEP Exam Questions

Page 6 of 25

101.

Which of the following most accurately describes Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?

  • Long-term, hyperbolic concerns that are present more often than they are absent

  • Fixation on a need to perform a repeated ritual in order to ease anxious symptoms

  • Terrifying, debilitating thoughts about a past trauma

  • Sudden, unpredictable periods of extreme fear

Correct answer: Long-term, hyperbolic concerns that are present more often than they are absent

Generalized Anxiety Disorder is diagnosed when a patient demonstrates three or more of the following six symptoms: 1) restlessness, 2) difficulty concentrating, 3) irritability, 4) general fatigue, 5) muscle tension, 6) sleep-related issues. Additionally, these patients report being disproportionately worried about one or more subjects, on most days, for more than six months.

Fixation on a need to perform a repeated ritual in order to ease anxious symptoms is characteristic of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD). Terrifying, debilitating thoughts about a past trauma is characteristic of Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD). Sudden, unpredictable periods of extreme fear is characteristic of Panic Disorder.

102.

Which of the following is an example of positive reinforcement for a client who is overweight and does not like to exercise?

  • Allowing a client to have a small candy bar after completing a difficult workout

  • Letting a client end an exercise session ten minutes early as a reward for completing three workouts in a week

  • Having a client perform ten extra minutes of exercise as a consequence of him exceeding his calorie limit

  • Taking away time from a client's favorite part of a workout as a consequence of him skipping a workout earlier in the week

Correct answer: Allowing a client to have a small candy bar after completing a difficult workout

Positive reinforcement means that a pleasant stimulus is added to increase the likelihood of a behavior. By giving the client a small candy bar as a reward for completing a tough workout, the CEP is adding a pleasant stimulus in the hopes that the client will continue to perform these difficult exercise sessions.

Letting a client end an exercise session early as a reward for completing three workouts in a week is an example of negative reinforcement. Having a client perform ten extra minutes of exercise as a consequence of him exceeding his calorie limit is an example of positive punishment. Taking away time from a client's favorite part of a workout as a consequence of him skipping a workout earlier in the week is an example of negative punishment.

103.

What is the difference between osteoporosis and osteoarthritis?

  • Osteoporosis is a condition in which bones lose their density and are more likely to fracture. Osteoarthritis is a condition in which joints become worn down due to wear and tear.

  • Osteoarthritis is a precursor to osteoporosis

  • Osteoporosis is a precursor to osteoarthritis

  • Osteoporosis is a condition of brittle bones that occurs in children. Osteoarthritis is the term for the same disease when it occurs in adults.

Correct answer: Osteoporosis is a condition in which bones lose their density and are more likely to fracture. Osteoarthritis is a condition in which joints become worn down due to wear and tear.

Both osteoporosis and osteoarthritis can be debilitating diseases that cause patients to withdraw from activities due to fear and pain. Specific, targeted exercise can help with the progression of both of these conditions.

Osteoporosis and osteoarthritis both deal with the skeletal system, but they are not progressions or precursors of one another. Osteoporosis and osteoarthritis can begin at any age, but both often begin in later adulthood.

104.

Which of the following is true regarding plantar fasciitis?

  • The hallmark sign of plantar fasciitis is point tenderness on the plantar surface of the medial heel

  • A risk factor for plantar fasciitis is pes cavus

  • Night splints are ineffective in reducing symptoms of plantar fasciitis

  • Plantar fasciitis is considered a rare foot disorder

Correct answer: The hallmark sign of plantar fasciitis is point tenderness on the plantar surface of the medial heel

Plantar fasciitis is sometimes referred to as "medial plantar heel pain" due to the fact that the diagnosis is often confirmed by palpating this area of the foot.

A risk factor for plantar fasciitis is pes planus. Night splints have been shown to be effective for reducing symptoms of plantar fasciitis. Plantar fasciitis is the most common foot injury.

105.

A CEP is instructing a patient on exercise progression. Which of the following is a way to make the back squat exercise more difficult?

  • Add an isometric hold for 3 seconds at the bottom of each repetition

  • Decrease the number of reps for each set

  • Instruct the patient to perform half or quarter range of motion reps

  • Decrease the weight used during the exercise

Correct answer: Add an isometric hold for 3 seconds at the bottom of each repetition

By adding an isometric component to the exercise, the patient will increase his Time Under Tension (TUT). This will make for a more difficult exercise progression as well.

Increasing the number of reps per set would make the exercise more difficult. Performing half or quarter range of motion would make the exercise easier. Decreasing the weight used during the squat would make the exercise easier.

106.

A client who is exercising at high altitude is taking more rest breaks than usual while running on the treadmill. How should the CEP respond to this situation?

  • This is a normal response to exercise at high altitudes. The CEP should encourage the client to take rest breaks as needed and monitor for any changes in symptoms.

  • This is a potential sign of high altitude pulmonary edema. The CEP should activate the emergency response system.

  • This is a potential sign of high altitude cerebral edema. The CEP should activate the emergency response system.

  • This client should be encouraged to push through the discomfort in order to better adapt to the high altitude

Correct answer: This is a normal response to exercise at high altitudes. The CEP should encourage the client to take rest breaks as needed and monitor for any changes in symptoms.

The increased need for rest is common when exercising at high altitudes. Therefore, the CEP should not be concerned about this development, but should continue to monitor the client for any other changes.

High altitude cerebral edema and high altitude pulmonary edema are both life-threatening conditions. However, this patient is not displaying any signs that would be indicative of either of these conditions. Encouraging the client to push through her symptoms may lead to worse performance and, possibly, increased symptoms.

107.

Which of the following is true of the Exercise is Medicine (EIM) movement?

  • EIM proponents are pushing for exercise/physical activity to be considered as a vital sign, much like blood pressure and heart rate

  • The movement was created in an attempt to replace all medicine with exercise

  • Proponents of EIM believe that, as long a person exercises regularly, he does not need to change his diet or take any medications

  • Drug researchers are studying the effects of exercise in an effort to create a pill that will lead to the same health benefits

Correct answer: EIM proponents are pushing for exercise/physical activity to be considered as a vital sign, much like blood pressure and heart rate

Exercise and physical activity have so many amazing benefits for the human body that researchers are touting them as "miracle drugs". EIM was created to encourage medical providers and others in the field to discuss exercise/physical activity as if they were medicines that could be prescribed. There have been some barriers to successful implementation, but the movement has been very successful thus far.

108.

Which of the following is not associated with long periods of sedentary time and insufficient physical activity?

  • Hypotension

  • Obesity

  • Increased waist circumference measurement

  • Type II diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: Hypotension

Hypotension is low blood pressure. Hypotension is not associated with long periods of sedentary activity and insufficient physical activity. In fact, high blood pressure, or hypertension, is associated with these issues. 

Other potential effects of sedentary behavior and lack of activity include obesity, increased waist circumference, type II diabetes, metabolic disease, and all-cause mortality.

109.

Which of the following is true regarding diuretics?

  • Diuretics decrease blood pressure

  • Diuretics increase heart rate

  • Diuretics increase the body's ability to store fluids

  • There are no known side effects associated with the use of diuretics

Correct answer: Diuretics decrease blood pressure

Diuretics are designed to rid the body of excess fluid. These drugs are often prescribed for patients that have hypertension, heart failure, and swelling/edema.

Diuretics have no effect on heart rate. Diuretics decrease the stored fluids within the body. Side effects of diuretics include light-headedness, headaches, and nausea.

110.

Which of the following is an example of a secondary airborne pollutant?

  • Ozone

  • Carbon monoxide

  • Sulfer oxides

  • Nitrogen oxides

Correct answer: Ozone

Because ozone forms when it interacts with another compound, it is considered a secondary pollutant.

Carbon monoxide, sulfur oxides, and nitrogen oxides are all considered primary pollutants, as they are produced directly from a pollution source.

111.

Which of the following is the best description of how to perform a crunch exercise?

  • Lying on your back, cross both hands over your chest, lift your shoulder blades slightly off of the floor by contracting your abdominal muscles, then slowly return to the starting position

  • Lying on your back, cross both hands over your chest and sit up until your elbows touch your thighs, then slowly return to the starting position

  • Lying on your back, place both hands behind your head and pull on your head with your arms so that your shoulder blades raise off of the ground, then slowly return to the starting position

  • Lying on your back, place both hands on your abdomen and slowly breathe out while attempting to gently contract the muscles lying under your hands. Hold the contraction for ten seconds, then relax.

Correct answer: Lying on your back, cross both hands over your chest, lift your shoulder blades slightly off of the floor by contracting your abdominal muscles, then slowly return to the starting position

A crunch is one of the best exercises for activating the rectus abdominis muscle. When performed correctly, it is an excellent choice for strength and stability in the core region.

Lifting up far enough to touch elbows to thighs describes a sit up. Pulling on one's head during a crunch or sit up can lead to neck pain and decreased abdominal muscle activation. Placing hands on the abdomen and gently contracting the stomach muscles while breathing most closely describes an exercise for the transversus abdominis.

112.

Which of the following is a risk factor for type II diabetes mellitus?

  • Diagnosed hypertension

  • High levels of HDL cholesterol

  • Maintaining a vegetarian diet

  • Age greater than 30 years old

Correct answer: Diagnosed hypertension

Those with comorbidities such as hypertension are at higher risk of developing type II diabetes mellitus.

Low levels of HDL cholesterol present a risk factor for the development of type II DM. A vegetarian diet is not associated with a higher risk of developing type II DM. Those aged 45 years or older are at risk of developing type II DM.

113.

A client mentions to her CEP that she is worried about her 12-year-old son's weight. He doesn't like to play sports and rarely participates in physical activities. However, she is concerned that he may be injured if he enters into a formal exercise program. 

How should the CEP respond?

  • "Supervised and appropriately scaled exercise and physical activity are very safe for adolescents. There is good evidence to show that young people who have low levels of fitness and muscle strength may have a higher risk of disease in adulthood. Therefore, the earlier you can get your child into a supervised exercise program, the better."

  • "You're right to worry about the risks of exercise for adolescents. Your son should wait to start exercising until he is at least 18 years old and should focus solely on improving his diet for the time being."

  • "Cardiorespiratory exercise is very safe for adolescents, but resistance training can stunt growth in adolescents."

  • "Your son could participate in flexibility exercise or yoga classes, but you're right to keep him from participating in resistance training and cardiorespiratory exercise. These modes of exercise are dangerous for adolescents."

Correct answer: "Supervised and appropriately scaled exercise and physical activity are very safe for adolescents. There is good evidence to show that young people who have low levels of fitness and muscle strength may have a higher risk of disease in adulthood. Therefore, the earlier you can get your child into a supervised exercise program, the better."

Even young children can safely participate in exercise programs consisting of flexibility, cardiorespiratory, and resistance training modes, as long as the programs are supervised and appropriately designed for their developmental level. There are few risks to exercise for this population, and the benefits far outweigh any risks that do apply.

114.

A cancer of which of the following tissues would be considered a " hematological cancer"?

  • Bone marrow

  • Epithelial tissue

  • Muscle tissue

  • Cartilage

Correct answer: Bone marrow

Hematological cancers are those cancers that form in tissues that create blood cells.

Cancers forming in epithelial tissues are known as carcinomas. Cancers forming in connective tissue, such as muscle tissue, are broadly known as sarcomas. Cancers forming in cartilage are known as chondrosarcomas.

115.

Which of the following is true about asystole?

  • Asystole is the absence of electrical activity throughout the heart

  • Asystole is a process in which the ventricles begin to depolarize quickly and in a disorganized way

  • Asystole is three or more premature ventricular complexes (PVCs) in a row

  • Asystole is sometimes called a wandering atrial pacemaker

Correct answer: Asystole is the absence of electrical activity throughout the heart

Asystole is sometimes called "flat-lining" as there will be no electrical read-out on the ECG except for a single flat line. Asystole happens when there are no pacemakers in the heart that can produce any form of electricity, rendering the patient unconscious.

Ventricular fibrillation is a process in which the ventricles begin to depolarize quickly and in a disorganized way. Ventricular tachycardia is three or more PVCs in a row. Asystole is sometimes called "flat-lining".

116.

What changes to exercise testing protocol should be made for a patient who has been diagnosed with Situs Inversus?

  • Switch the position of the arm and leg leads to the opposite side of the body and place the precordial leads on the right side of the chest

  • Situs Inversus is an absolute contraindication for exercise testing. The CEP should, under no circumstances, conduct an exercise test on this patient.

  • Only submaximal exercise testing should be performed on a patient with Situs Inversus

  • No accurate ECG can be obtained on a patient with Situs Inversus. Therefore, only manual heart rate and blood pressure measurements should be taken during the test.

Correct answer: Switch the position of the arm and leg leads to the opposite side of the body and place the precordial leads on the right side of the chest

Situs Inversus is a condition in which the major organs are positioned on the opposite side of the body from normal. The only change that needs to be made is for the electrodes to be placed on the opposite side of the body to reflect the different orientation of the heart.

Situs Inversus is not a contraindication for exercise testing. Maximal exercise testing can be performed on a patient with Situs Inversus, barring any other complicating factors. Accurate ECG readings can be obtained from a patient with Situs Inversus as long as the electrodes are placed on the opposite side of the body.

117.

The amount of air left in the lungs after a full breath out defines which of the following terms?

  • Residual lung volume

  • Tidal volume

  • Inspiratory capacity

  • Total lung capacity

Correct answer: Residual lung volume

When the lungs have no air in them, they will collapse. Therefore, there always needs to be some air to maintain the structure of the lungs. This is known as the residual volume.

Tidal volume describes a normal breath in and out. Inspiratory capacity describes how much one can breathe in after a normal tidal breath. Total lung capacity is the total amount of air that is in the lungs after a maximal inhalation.

118.

What would you expect to see on an ECG of a patient with a "strain pattern"?

  • T-wave inversion and ST-segment depression

  • P-wave inversion

  • QRS complex inversion

  • A slower than average heart rate

Correct answer: T-wave inversion and ST-segment depression

T-wave inversion paired with ST-segment depression is commonly referred to as a strain pattern, but can also be called a repolarization abnormality.

P-wave inversion usually occurs when there is an ectopic atrial rhythm. Inverted QRS waves may indicate ischemia or hypertrophy of the ventricles. A slower than average heart rate describes sinus bradycardia.

119.

A patient approaches his CEP asking about rotator cuff strengthening exercises. Which of the following group of exercises would most heavily emphasize each of the four rotator cuff muscles?

  • Standing cable shoulder internal rotation with the elbow bent to 90°, sidelying dumbbell shoulder external rotation with the elbow bent to 90°, standing dumbbell shoulder abduction

  • Standing shoulder abduction with bands, seated shoulder external rotation with pulleys and the elbow bent to 90°, sidelying shoulder external rotation with no weight and the elbow bent to 90°

  • Squats with a hex bar, sidelying shoulder abduction with dumbbells, isometric shoulder external rotation against the wall with the elbow bent to 90°

  • Isometric shoulder external rotation against the wall with the elbow bent to 90°, standing shoulder abduction with dumbbells, standing shoulder horizontal abduction with bands

Correct answer: Standing cable shoulder internal rotation with the elbow bent to 90°, sidelying dumbbell shoulder external rotation with the elbow bent to 90°, standing dumbbell shoulder abduction

The four muscles of the rotator cuff include the infraspinatus, the teres minor, the supraspinatus, and the subscapularis. The infraspinatus and teres minor both primarily perform external rotation of the shoulder, the supraspinatus primarily initiates abduction of the shoulder, and the subscapularis primarily performs internal rotation of the shoulder. 

While the rotator cuff muscles will likely be active during almost any upper body movement, the best option from this list includes an isolated abduction movement, an isolated internal rotation movement, and an isolated external rotation movement.

120.

Which of the following patients could be diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis?

  • A male patient who reports morning stiffness that lasts for 2 hours before improving and has experienced bilateral swelling in the wrists, elbows, and knees for 7 weeks

  • A female patient who experiences swelling in her right knee every morning that gets better as she moves around throughout the day

  • A male patient who experiences stiffness in his hands after working for a full day at his job as a transcriptionist

  • A female patient who experiences stiffness in her right foot and hand at least three days a week for more than 4 hours at a time

Correct answer: A male patient who reports morning stiffness that lasts for 2 hours before improving and has experienced bilateral swelling in the wrists, elbows, and knees for 7 weeks

To recieve a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, the patient must present with at least four of the following criteria:

  • Joint stiffness that presents in the morning and lasts for 1 hour or more
  • Arthritis of at least three joint areas (possible joints include the MCPs, MTPs, wrists, elbows, knees, ankles, PIPs) that has been present for 6 weeks or longer
  • Arthritis of the hands that has been present for 6 weeks or longer
  • Bilateral arthritis
  • Presence of rheumatoid nodules
  • Presence of abnormal serum rheumatoid factor
  • Changes seen on radiograph that are indicative of rheumatoid arthritis
×