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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

ACSM-CPT Exam Questions

Page 10 of 50

181.

What is the purpose of a waiver or release of liability document for a personal trainer?

  • To protect the trainer from liability in case of negligence

  • To protect the trainer from liability in case of equipment failure

  • To protect the trainer from liability in case of injury while in transit to facility

  • To protect the trainer from liability in case of lack of results

Correct answer: To protect the trainer from liability in case of negligence

For the client to knowingly waive or release the personal trainer from liability for any acts of negligence, a waiver or release of liability document is used. In other words, even if the personal trainer is negligent, the prospective client waives their right to sue the personal trainer.

182.

In the linear periodization model, how long is a macrocycle?

  • One year

  • One month

  • Three months

  • One week

Correct answer: One year

The linear periodization model breaks down a training program into different cycles of training (phases) that vary in length. The shortest training cycle is the microcycle, which can generally last anywhere from 1-4 weeks. The programming in each microcycle is dedicated to a specific training goal (hypertrophy, strength, etc.).

Multiple, successive microcycles are combined to create each mesocycle, which typically lasts 2-4 months.

The largest training time frame is the macrocycle, which typically represents one full year of training, and is made up of multiple mesocycles.

183.

In which of the following populations are Achilles tendon ruptures most commonly seen?

  • Male athletes between 30 and 40 years of age

  • Female athletes between 15 and 25 years of age

  • Male athletes between 15 and 25 years of age

  • Female athletes between 30 and 40 years of age

Correct answer: Male athletes between 30 and 40 years of age

Achilles tendon rupture is considered one of the most serious acute leg injuries. Nearly 75% of Achilles tendon ruptures occur in male athletes between 30 and 40 years of age. The cause is typically the mechanism of forceful plantarflexion while the knee is extended. More often than not, this type of injury requires surgical repair and extensive long-term rehabilitation.

184.

The most important forms for a personal trainer include all of the following except:

  • Client goals list

  • Preparticipation screening form

  • Health history questionnaire

  • Incident reports

Correct answer: Client goals list

The most important forms for a personal trainer include the following:

  • Preparticipation screening form
  • Health history questionnaire
  • Physician's statement and medical clearance
  • Fitness assessment
  • Client progress notes
  • Incident reports

In order to be a competent personal trainer, one must not only have these forms but know when to use them. Blank spaces are unacceptable in these forms; they should be completely filled out to ensure the personal trainer is being as thorough as possible. 

185.

A chin-up is an example of which joint movement?

  • Shoulder extension

  • Shoulder abduction

  • Shoulder flexion

  • External rotation

Correct answer: Shoulder extension

A multi-joint structure that provides the link between the thoracic cage and the upper extremity is known as the shoulder complex. The shoulder has a high degree of mobility; as a result, the shoulder region is very unstable. The chin-up is an example of shoulder extension, which incorporates muscles such as the latissimus dorsi and teres major.

186.

Which type of contraction occurs in the quadriceps during the downward phase of the squat?

  • Eccentric

  • Concentric

  • Isometric

  • Both eccentric and concentric

Correct answer: Eccentric

An eccentric contraction occurs when a muscle produces insufficient force to overcome a resistance and is lengthened. During the downward phase of the squat, the quadriceps lengthen because knee flexion occurs at the knee joint.

Concentric joint actions occur when a muscle produces sufficient force to overcome a resistance and is shortened. Isometric joint actions occur when a muscle produces an amount of force that results in no change in muscle length.

187.

After slip-and-fall claims, what is the second most common claim made against trainers and fitness facilities?

  • Injuries from using equipment

  • Physical contact without consent

  • Sexual harassment

  • Not delivering promised health results for clients

Correct answer: Injuries from using equipment

The second leading claim against trainers is when a person gets injured using exercise equipment, according to ACSM. A personal trainer should make sure a piece of equipment is safe before having a client use it. A trainer who neglects to take reasonable precautions, which are determined on the basis of an evaluation of facts surrounding an incident, could be considered negligent and, therefore, liable or responsible.

188.

All of the following contain mechanoreceptors except:

  • Bones

  • Skin

  • Muscles

  • Fascia 

Correct answer: Bones

The sense of knowing where one's body is in space is referred to as proprioception. There are two types of proprioception: static (joint position sense) and dynamic (kinesthetic movement sense). 

Proprioception enables us to do the following with closed eyes:

  • Estimate the size of our feet
  • Describe the width of our pelvis
  • Scratch our noses

This sensory input is gathered from specialized nerve endings, termed mechanoreceptors, that are located within the skin, muscles, fascia, and joints, but not the bones.

189.

Which theory of behavioral change puts an emphasis on the client's thoughts and feelings?

  • Social cognitive theory

  • Theory of planned behavior

  • Health belief model

  • Transtheoretical model

Correct answer: Social cognitive theory

Social cognitive theory (SCT) states that outcome expectations and self-efficacy are the most important to behavior change. Outcome expectations are what an individual thinks will happen as a result of their new behavior. Self-efficacy is defined as "situation-specific self-confidence," which means a belief in one's self in a variety of situations.

SCT puts great emphasis on a client's thoughts and feelings, as proponents of this model believe that clients actively shape their lives by thinking, feeling, reflecting, and observing themselves.

190.

Which of the following falls outside of a personal trainer's scope of practice?

  • Explaining the effects that different nutrients have on diabetes management

  • Explaining the principles of healthy food shopping

  • Explaining the principles of healthy food preparation

  • Explaining the effects that different nutrients have on the body

Correct answer: Explaining the effects that different nutrients have on diabetes management

Personal trainers are able to provide nonmedical nutrition information. It is outside of the personal trainer's scope of practice to provide medical nutrition information, including information related to treating or managing a disease.

191.

Which of the following types of training is best suited to improve ROM?

  • Flexibility training

  • Resistance training

  • Cardiorespiratory training

  • Balance training

Correct answer: Flexibility training

Flexibility training performed regularly over a long period of time will allow the stretched muscles to stretch farther over time. This increases the ROM of the joints around which those muscles create movement.

Resistance training is best suited for increasing muscular hypertrophy, strength, endurance, or power. Cardiorespiratory training is best suited for increasing aerobic capacity or function of the cardiorespiratory system. Balance training is best suited for improving balance.

192.

Posture and alignment are both important considerations when performing cardiorespiratory exercises. Which of the following is not a common error when using the treadmill?

  • Shifting too much side to side

  • Leaning forward

  • Relying too much on the handrails

  • Abnormal gait

Correct answer: Shifting too much side to side

The common errors seen when using the treadmill include:

  • Leaning forward instead of maintaining an upright posture
  • Abnormal gait. For example, someone might take steps that are much shorter than their natural gait pattern.
  • Over-reliance on the grips or the handrails.

Shifting side to side is not a common error on the treadmill, but can be a common error on the stationary bike, especially if the seat is set in a position that is too high.

Walking and jogging on the treadmill should resemble the same movements when performed on solid ground. These errors are common and should be addressed. Communicate with your clients to teach them about proper alignment and posture in all activities.

193.

All of the following are dynamic exercises except:

  • Straddling

  • Arm circles

  • Pendulum leg swings

  • Butt kicks

Correct answer: Straddling

There are many ways an individual can improve their flexibility and increase joint range of motion (ROM), and nearly all of them use some form of stretching. There are three types of stretching that are performed using active or passive techniques to improve flexibility: static, dynamic, and proprioceptive neural facilitation (PNF).

Dynamic stretching features movements along with muscle tension development. It is also described as being very similar to a sport- or function-specific warm-up. Examples of dynamic stretches include butt kicks, pendulum leg swings, and arm circles.

194.

Which of the following represents the difference between HRmax and HRrest?

  • HRR

  • Target HR

  • SV

  • CO

Correct answer: HRR

Heart rate reserve (HRR), in practice, is how much capacity an individual's heart rate has to change from a resting state in response to physical activity.

Target HR refers to the heart rate an individual aims to train at during an exercise bout. Stroke volume (SV) is the amount of blood the left ventricle of the heart pumps out on each beat. Cardiac output (CO) is the amount of blood circulated systemically through the body on each beat. It is calculated by SV x HR = CO.

195.

All of the following factors influence carbohydrate consumption except:

  • Age

  • Gender

  • Physical activity level

  • Environmental conditions

Correct answer: Age

Carbohydrate recommendations range from 3 to 12 grams per kilogram of body weight. Ultimately, the amount of carbohydrate needed is associated with intensity and duration of physical activity, gender, and environmental conditions (cold, humid, hot, etc.).

196.

What is the name of the third phase of the snatch exercise?

  • Catch position

  • Second pull

  • Third pull

  • Final position

Correct answer: Catch position

There are three phases of the snatch exercise:

  1. Starting position: This phase consists of the client preparing to lift the barbell by positioning themselves in front of it.
  2. Second pull phase: This phase consists of the client performing a triple extension at their ankles, knees, and hips while shrugging the barbell above their chest.
  3. Catch position: This phase consists of the client entering a squatting position while raising the barbell overhead with their arms fully extended.

197.

In regard to Korotkoff sounds, which of the following phases is defined as the clinical diastolic blood pressure?

  • Phase 5

  • Phase 4

  • Phase 3

  • Phase 6

Correct answer: Phase 5

To measure blood pressure, as the air is let out of the pumped-up cuff, the personal trainer must be able to listen to and distinguish between the sounds of the blood as it makes its way from an area of high pressure to an area of lower pressure. These sounds are known as Korotkoff sounds and can be divided into five phases.

Phase 5 is known as the clinical diastolic blood pressure, or the complete disappearance of sound.

Phase 4 is where the sounds first become less distinct. Phase 3 includes higher-pitched sounds that are sharp and loud as compared to those heard in other phases. Phase 6 is not recognized as a part of the Korotkoff sound model.

198.

Which of the following should be performed first when conducting a fitness assessment?

  • Resting cardiovascular readings

  • Body composition tests

  • Muscular fitness tests

  • Flexibility tests

Correct answer: Resting cardiovascular readings

Before having a client perform any movement testing, resting cardiovascular measurements should be taken. This will serve to provide the most accurate resting measurements possible in this domain. After these measurements are obtained, body composition tests should follow. Next, the trainer should lead the client through appropriate cardiovascular tests, followed by muscular fitness testing and flexibility testing.

199.

What is the minimum number of stages for the YMCA Submaximal Cycle Test?

  • Two

  • Three

  • Four

  • Five

Correct answer: Two

The YMCA Submaximal Cycle Test uses a multistage setup to establish a relationship between an individual's heart rate and work rate to predict cardiorespiratory fitness. 

The test requires a minimum of two stages, with the possibility of four stages. Each stage is three minutes long. The end goal is having the individual complete two separate stages that result in their heart rate being between 110 bpm and 150 bpm.

200.

How long should a warm-up last for a cardiorespiratory training session?

  • 5-10 minutes

  • 2-3 minutes

  • 3-5 minutes

  • 10-15 minutes

Correct answer: 5-10 minutes

Similar to resistance training, it is important to warm up prior to a cardiorespiratory training session. The duration of the warm-up session should be long enough so that your body's temperature and blood flow increase, but not so long that fatigue starts to accumulate and negatively impact performance during the conditioning phase of the training session.

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