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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

ACSM-EP Exam Questions

Page 5 of 25

81.

All these features are typical of an exempt position except:

  • Paid an hourly wage

  • Must supervise a department

  • Falls into one of the FLSA categories 

  • Must have authority to hire or dismiss an employee

Correct answer: Paid an hourly wage

Being an exempt employee implies that the worker does not quality for minimum wage or overtime. In other words, they are exempt from receiving such benefits. As a result, they will receive the following benefits: 

  • Must supervise a department
  • Falls into one of the FLSA categories (e.g., execute and professional)
  • Must be paid a salary of at least $684 per week
  • Must supervise two full-time employees
  • Must have authority to hire or dismiss an employee

82.

What is the best way to improve cardiorespiratory fitness?

  • Exercise at a level greater than accustomed to induce adaptation

  • Perform heavy resistance training exercise 

  • Complete moderate intensity cardio exercise twice per week 

  • Focus on low intensity exercise for short bouts 

Correct answer: Exercise at a level greater than accustomed to induce adaptation

Progressive overload should be at the foundation of all exercise programs because studies show that the best way to improve cardiorespiratory fitness is to exercise at a level greater than accustomed to induce adaptation.

As a trainer, you can implement the principle of progressive overload by manipulating the frequency, intensity, or time of the exercise program.

83.

Which of the following is closest to a S.M.A.R.T. goal?

  • I want to lose 15 pounds of fat within 6 months for my high school reunion.

  • I want to lose weight.

  • I want to fit into my clothes from college by walking everyday for 3 miles.

  • I want to feel better about my body within the next three weeks.

Correct answer: I want to lose 15 pounds of fat within 6 months for my high school reunion.

Goals have an important and significant impact on a client's thoughts and behavioral choices. Helping your client to create and achieve new, healthy goals is an important part of the responsibility of an exercise physiologist. The acronym "S.M.A.R.T." can help you and your client create effective and realistic goals. S.M.A.R.T. stands for the following:

  • Specific: Identify the what, where, and how aspects of the goal
  • Measurable: Ensure the change and progress can be clearly noted
  • Attainable: Set up goals that are challenging but within reach
  • Relevant: Focus energy on goals that help achieve outcomes that are highly valued
  • Time-Bound: Explicitly state deadlines for goal completion

Those fitness goals that state the desired outcome, reducing the ambiguity of the task, are more likely to be accomplished within a realistic amount of time.

When a client says they want to lose 15 pounds of fat within 6 months for their high school reunion, they are following all the steps for a specific goal. They have also specified a timeline and a measurable goal. The goal may or may not be attainable and relevant based on specifics pertaining to the client.

84.

Which of the following is a risk factor criteria for a family history of a cardiovascular event?

  • Father had a heart attack at 48

  • Mother had a heart attack at 72

  • Brother died from sudden cardiac death at 59

  • Cousin had a heart attack at 37

Correct answer: Father had a heart attack at 48

When performing an atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease risk factor assessment, there are multiple defining criteria that the exercise physiologist should review. One of those factors is a family history of cardiovascular events, including heart attack, coronary revascularization, and sudden cardiac death. This only applies to first-degree relatives: parents, siblings, and children.

The risk factor criteria are met when at least one first-degree male relative has had one of the three specific events prior to the age of 55 or one first-degree female relative before the age of 65.

85.

You have a client who is completely new to fitness and resistance training. What is the recommended number of sets they should perform per muscle group in a single training session?

  • One set

  • Two sets

  • Three sets

  • Four sets

Correct answer: One set

Factors that influence training volume include exercises performed per session, the repetitions performed per set, and the number of sets performed per exercise. When it comes to sets, if you have a client who is completely new to fitness, it is recommended that they begin with single-set training.

Novice trainees can perform fewer than five sets per muscle group per week to enhance their training adaptations. On the other hand, a more experienced client would require multiple-set training.

86.

Which of the following is not correct with respect to the order of exercise programming?

  • Power exercises should be performed after traditional compound movements

  • Multi-joint movements should be followed by single-joint movements

  • Plyometrics should occur prior to strength training

  • Large muscle groups should be emphasized before smaller muscle groups

Correct answer: Power exercises should be performed after traditional compound movements

There are many ways to arrange a client's workout, but in general, there are several rules to consider:

  • Clients should start with total body workouts before isolation-based workouts.
  • Large muscle groups should be targeted before smaller muscle groups.
  • Multi-joint exercises should be followed by single-joint exercises.
  • Plyometric and power exercises should come before strength training.

Due to the intensity and level of fatigue that are inherent in them, power exercises should never follow traditional compound exercises. You want your client to be completely ready and full of energy. Exercising before power movements can reduce performance and increase the risk for injury.

87.

Which of the following most accurately describes the acute variables (FITT) for a resistance training program for a client who is overweight or obese? 

  • 2-3 days per week / 60-70% 1-RM / 2-4 sets of 8-12 reps / Machines and free weights

  • 2-3 days per week / 50-60% 1-RM / 3-5 sets of 15-20 reps / Only machines

  • 3-4 days per week / 70-80% 1-RM / 4-6 sets of 4-7reps / Machines and free weights

  • 2-3 days per week / 80-90% 1-RM / 6+ sets of 1-3 reps / Only free weights

Correct answer: 2-3 days per week / 60-70% 1-RM / 2-4 sets of 8-12 reps / Machines and free weights

For clients who are overweight or obese and new to fitness, the focus on the resistance training of their program should reflect the following:

  • Frequency: 2-3 days per week
  • Intensity: 60-70% 1-RM
  • Time: 2-4 sets of 8-12 reps
  • Type: Focus on machines and free weights

After several weeks, the trainer can consider progressing the program to a higher intensity and more time along with different types of exercise equipment.

88.

Which of the following best captures the two basic approaches to a preparticipation physical activity screening?

  • Self-guided and professionally supervised screenings

  • Beginner and advanced screenings

  • Weight loss and muscle growth screenings

  • Athlete and general population screenings 

Correct answer: Self-guided and professionally supervised screenings

A preparticipation physical activity screening is recommended for new clients for the following reasons:

  • To identify those with medical contraindications for performing physical activity
  • To identify those who should receive a medical/physical evaluation exam and clearance prior to performing a physical activity program
  • To identify those who should participate in a medically supervised physical activity program
  • To identify those with other health/medical concerns such as orthopedic injuries

There are two basic approaches to a preparticipation physical activity screening:

  • Self-guided: This approach can be performed by an individual wishing to become more physically active without direct input from an exercise professional.
  • Professionally supervised: This approach involves interaction with an exercise professional.

These approaches are not mutually exclusive, and one may follow the other.

89.

Which of the following is not a checkpoint for the sagittal view during the basic plumb line postural assessment?

  • Navel

  • Ear canal

  • Acromioclavicular joint

  • Tibial tuberosity

Correct answer: Navel

When performing a plumb line assessment, the trainer should view the client from the sagittal and anterior positions. For the sagittal view, clients should stand sideways to the plumb line with the line positioned slightly anterior to the client's ankle. 

For the anterior view, clients should stand facing the plumb line with feet equidistant from the line. Align the plumb with the pubis.

All the following are checkpoints for the sagittal view during the basic plumb line postural assessment:

  • Ear canal
  • Acromioclavicular joint
  • Tibial tuberosity

The navel is a checkpoint for the anterior view.

90.

During a blood pressure reading, to which pressure (described in mmHg) should you quickly inflate the cuff?

  • 20 mmHg above the first Korotkoff sound

  • 40 mmHg above the first Korotkoff sound

  • 20 mmHg below the first Korotkoff sound

  • 40 mmHg below the first Korotkoff sound

Correct answer: 20 mmHg above the first Korotkoff sound

It is critical to assess a new client's resting blood pressure, as this is the first step to determining whether the client is at risk for a cardiac event. During a blood pressure reading, you should quickly inflate the cuff pressure to 20 mmHg above the first Korotkoff sound.

Here are the correct steps to follow when assessing resting blood pressure:

  1. No smoking or caffeine 30 minutes before the assessment.
  2. Have your client sit quietly for five minutes before the assessment with their feet on the floor.
  3. Wrap the cuff firmly around the upper arm at heart level.
  4. Place the sthethscope chest piece below the antecubital space over the brachial artery.
  5. Quickly inflate cuff pressure 20 mmHg above the first Korotkoff sound.
  6. Slowly release pressure at a rate equal to 2 to 5 mmHg x s-1.
  7. Systolic blood pressure is the point at which the first or two or more Korotkoff sounds are heard (phase 1).
  8. Diastolic blood pressure is the point before the disappearance of Korotkoff sounds (phase 5).

The assessment should never begin as soon as the client arrives, as this will produce inaccurate test results. Let the client sit down quietly for five minutes before the assessment. On the day of, remind your client not to ingest caffeine or smoke until after the assessment.

91.

When it comes to reducing the risk of injury in your client's workout programming, which of the following do you not have control over?

  • Training errors

  • Resistance present in the weight or band

  • Type of movement

  • Volume of exercise 

Correct answer: Training errors

As an exercise physiologist, it is up to you to minimize risk for your client. Not everything will be within your control, but when you're creating an appropriate program, it is within your control to adjust load, type of movement, and number of repetitions. 

However, the training errors that occur are not completely within your control. You can help your client course-correct, but if a mistake is made, it is dependent upon your client's performance followed by your feedback and corrections.

You will work with a variety of individuals, all of whom are going to have a wide array of potential intrinsic and extrinsic risk factors that may predispose them to injury. Common extrinsic risk factors include the following:

  • Excessive load on the body
  • Type of movement
  • Speed of movement
  • Number of repetitions
  • Footwear
  • Surface
  • Training errors
  • Excessive distances
  • Fast progression
  • High intensity
  • Running on hills
  • Poor technique
  • Fatigue
  • Adverse environmental conditions

92.

According to the general adaptation syndrome, in rare situations, stress-related exhaustion can cause which of the following?

  • Death

  • Increased endurance 

  • Supraphysiological strength 

  • Improved immune system 

Correct answer: Death

During the exhaustion stage, the body is no longer able to mount a defense, and if this happens for an extended period of time, the bodily systems can eventually break down and cause dysfunction in major organs. In extreme situations, stress-related exhaustion has the capacity to result in serious illness or death.

The general adaption syndrome can be summed up in three stages:

  • Alarm: This is when the stressor is first recognized by the system and a fight-or-flight response is initiated.
  • Resistance: This is when a cascade of cardiovascular, metabolic, hormonal, and immune changes is generated as a compensatory stress reaction.
  • Exhaustion: This is when the organism has depleted all biochemical substrates and additional resources and is no longer able to mount a defense against the stressor.

93.

Which of the following would the exercise physiologist not have to worry about in relation to the effect of common medication on cardiorespiratory exercise?

  • Increased VO2max 

  • Increased resting heart rate

  • Decreased blood pressure

  • Exercise capacity

Correct answer: Increased VO2max 

As an exercise physiologist, you will most certainly deal with clients who are taking one or more medications, both prescribed and over-the-counter. It is important for you to become familiar with the potential complex interactions of medication and exercise as these medications can directly alter a client's heart rate, blood pressure, and exercise capacity.

With that said, it is important to remember that, as an exercise physiologist, your duty is not to administer, prescribe, or educate the client on any type of medication.

VO2max is unlikely to increase in response to most medications.

94.

Your client has come a long way in their fitness journey, and their level of self-efficacy is much higher than at the start of the program. Which of the following is not a strategy of relapse prevention when it comes to self-efficacy?

  • Encourage client recall of another client's successful behavior change

  • Use verbal persuasion to reinforce task mastery

  • Encourage various forms of physical activity

  • Encourage reasonable, specific physical activity goals

Correct answer: Encourage client recall of another client's successful behavior change

Self-efficacy is an important part of social cognitive theory, and it states that the more confident someone feels in their ability and skills to succeed, the more likely they are to engage in that behavior. 

As it relates to fitness, the degree of self-efficacy in the client can predict how likely they are to stay consistent with a program. This is why it is important for the fitness professional to create an environment that instills a sense of confidence while educating on specific skills.

Relapse prevention has been found to be one of the most effective means of maintaining a high level of self-efficacy. Some strategies include the following:

  • Use verbal persuasion to reinforce task mastery.
  • Provide exposure to positive vicarious experiences.
  • Explain and reinforce the positive physiological and affective states achieved from exercise.
  • Encourage various forms of physical activity.
  • Encourage client recall of previous successful behavior change.
  • Maintain a physical activity log to help track success and progress.
  • Encourage reasonable, specific physical activity goals.

While you would want to have your client recall their own successful behavior, it is not recommended to have your client recall another client's successful behavior change.

95.

Which of the following is not a self-monitoring recommendation?

  • Encourage occasional self-monitoring

  • Provide feedback

  • Encourage the use of short-term behavioral goals

  • Select a method of self-monitoring that fits the client's needs

Correct answer: Encourage occasional self-monitoring

Self-monitoring involves observing and recording behavior and has been shown to be important in exercise behavior change. The following are recommended forms of self-monitoring that you should practice or encourage with clients:

  1. Select a method of self-monitoring that fits the client's needs
  2. Have the client form intentions and make plans
  3. Provide feedback
  4. Select tasks that do not require a lot of time and effect
  5. Encourage the use of short-term behavioral goals
  6. Encourage consistent self-monitoring

96.

Which of the following best defines vigorous exercise?

  • Equal to or greater than 60% of your client's functional capacity

  • Equal to or greater than 70% of your client's functional capacity

  • Equal to or greater than 80% of your client's functional capacity

  • Equal to or greater than 50% of your client's functional capacity

Correct answer: Equal to or greater than 60% of your client's functional capacity

The decision tree for a preparticipation screening is a simplified algorithm for determining whether your client requires a medical clearance before continuing with a physical activity program. 

While a medical clearance might be required if the client has no physical activity experience and plans to engage in vigorous or high-intensity exercise, a medical clearance is absolutely required if the client is showing signs and symptoms associated with CMR disease.

Vigorous activity is defined as 60% of your client's functional capacity. For example, > 6 METs or 14 on a 6-20 RPE scale.

97.

You've been working with a client for a few weeks on improving their functional movement patterns. You notice that your client is showing signs of internal rotation of the shoulders as an element of their posture. 

Which of the following is the suggested corrective exercise?

  • Banded shoulder external rotation

  • Light bench press with protraction holds

  • Tricep pushdowns with pulleys or bands

  • Front shoulder raises with dumbbells

Correct answer: Banded shoulder external rotation

As a part of the trainer's duty to appraise the quality of movement during an exercise session, it will be necessary to observe any alignment faults that might present themselves. 

When a client is showing signs of internal rotation of the shoulders, the trainer should incorporate the banded shoulder external rotation exercise into the client's program until the alignment issue is corrected. From there, the client can be re-evaluated and progressed to the next exercise that is in line with their fitness goals.

98.

Which of the following goals would occur during the self-reevaluation stage? 

  • Creating a new self-image 

  • Learning how to pay attention to one's feelings

  • Noticing how one can affect others 

  • Noticing social trends 

Correct answer: Creating a new self-image 

Processes of change can be broken down into experiential processes and behavioral processes. Both are recommended to help increase self-efficacy and facilitate the required transition from precontemplation to action to maintenance.

When the goal is to create a new self-image, this takes place during the self-reevaluation process of change, which is an experiential process.

You can have the client ask themselves, "How do I think and feel about myself as someone who is not exercising regularly? How might I feel differently if I exercised regularly?"

Other types of experiential processes include the following:

  • Consciousness raising
  • Dramatic relief
  • Environmental reevaluation
  • Social liberation

Learning how to pay attention to one's feelings is a part of dramatic relief. Noticing how one can affect others is a part of environmental reevaluation. Noticing social trends is a component of social liberation.

99.

If a client has dyslipidemia, they are said to be at risk for a cardiac event. Which of the following best defines dyslipidemia?

  • Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol > 130 mg x dL-1 / High-density lipoprotein of < 40 mg x dL-1

  • Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol > 120 mg x dL-1 / High-density lipoprotein of > 30 mg x dL-1

  • Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol > 110 mg x dL-1 / High-density lipoprotein of > 20 mg x dL-1

  • Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol > 150 mg x dL-1 / High-density lipoprotein of < 60 mg x dL-1

Correct answer: Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol > 130 mg x dL-1 / High-density lipoprotein of < 40 mg x dL-1

When performing an atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease risk factor assessment, there are multiple defining criteria that the exercise physiologist should review. One of those factors is dyslipidemia.

Dyslipidemia is best defined as low-density lipoprotein cholesterol > 130 mg x dL-1 or high-density lipoprotein of < 40 mg x dL-1.

100.

Which of the following best represents the acute variables for a client with cardiovascular disease who is performing a program focused on vigorous intensity? 

  • 3 days / 60-89% HRR / 20-30 minutes per session / Focus on large muscle groups

  • 1-2 days / 40-59% HRR / 10-30 minutes per session / Focus on weight-bearing exercises

  • 4-5 days / 50-60% HRR / 30-40 minutes per session / Focus on aerobic activities

  • 6-7 days / 80-95% HRR / 40-60 minutes per session / Focus on walking and cycling

Correct answer: 3 days / 60-89% HRR / 20-30 minutes per session / Focus on large muscle groups

While ACSM recommends using the FITT principle when creating a program for clients who have cardiovascular disease, there are some special considerations for these types of programs. The following acute variables are recommended for those with CVD who have been training for several months and are now ready for vigorous intensity.

  • Frequency: 3 days 
  • Intensity: 60-89% HRR
  • Time: 20-30 minutes per session
  • Type: Focus on large dynamic muscle group exercises

If a client with CVD is new to fitness, it would be recommended to use a much lower intensity while increasing the frequency and time.

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