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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

AMTA MBLEx (English) Exam Questions

Page 4 of 50

61.

A massage therapist is performing an assessment with a new client. All the following should be done except:

  • Goal setting

  • Observation

  • Muscle tests

  • Palpation

Correct answer: Goal setting

The assessment is the gathering of information and facts. This is a vital part of any session, but is especially important in the initial session in order to establish the client's needs. While goal setting is an essential part of the plan of care, it should not be done until the assessment is complete. The assessment will give the massage therapist the information needed to set goals, but if they are set before the assessment is complete, they may not be accurate or appropriate for that particular client. 

The assessment should include taking the client's history as well as palpation, observation, and muscle tests.

62.

Eleven months after a shoulder replacement, a client still has limitations in range of motion. After further assessment, the massage therapist notes restrictions in the mobility of the surgical scar. What is the most appropriate action to take?

  • Employ cross friction massage to the scar with pressure level 2–3

  • Employ cross friction massage to the scar with pressure level 4–6

  • Avoid the scarred area; use range-of-motion techniques

  • Avoid the scarred area; address trigger points elsewhere

Correct answer: Employ cross friction massage to the scar with pressure level 2–3 

This scar tissue is in the maturation and remodeling phase of healing. The tissue can and should be massaged to encourage proper collagen formation and pliability. Since the therapist noted restrictions in the scar, using cross friction massage with pressure level 2–3 is most appropriate. 

Using cross friction massage with pressure level 4–6 would be too aggressive; this level of pressure is usually used with adhesions on muscle layers. Since the scar is eleven months old, it is appropriate to address the scar. If it were still in the inflammatory stage of healing, it would not be appropriate to treat it. Since restrictions have been identified in the scar, it would be most appropriate to address them rather than treat trigger points elsewhere.

63.

Which of the following cranial nerves innervates the tongue?

  • Hypoglossal

  • Trigeminal

  • Trochlear

  • Vagus

Correct answer: Hypoglossal

The cranial nerve that innervates the tongue is the hypoglossal (XII) nerve. It arises in the medulla and contains mostly motor neurons, innervating the tongue and throat.

The cranial nerves include: 

I. The olfactory nerves, which transmit taste and smell information to the brain.

II. The optic nerves, which transmit visual information to the brain.

III. The oculomotor nerves, which transmit information about eye movement.

IV. The trochlear nerves, which innervate the muscles of the eyeball.

V. The trigeminal nerves, which transmit information about sensation in the head, face, and facial skin, and include motor neurons for mastication.

VI. The abducens nerves, which include both sensory and motor neurons related to eye movement.

VII. The facial nerves, which have sensory neurons for taste and motor neurons for facial expression, tear production, and salivation.

VIII. The vestibulocochlear nerves, which receive information about hearing and equilibrium.

IX. The glossopharyngeal nerves, which relate to taste, saliva production, swallowing, and the gag reflex.

X. The vagus nerves. These nerves contain sensory neurons for the pharynx, larynx, trachea, heart, carotid body, lungs, bronchi, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and gallbladder. Their motor neurons carry impulses to the pharyngeal and laryngeal muscles and the abdominal viscera. They control heart rate and other visceral activities.

XI. The accessory nerves mainly contain motor neurons for speaking, turning the head, and moving the shoulders.

XII. The hypoglossal nerves contain mostly motor neurons, which innervate the tongue and throat. 

64.

What is one benefit of accepting a job position as a salaried employee instead of working as a subcontractor?

  • Steady income

  • Variable income

  • Being subject to following the rules of the facility

  • Setting one's own desired work schedule

Correct answer: Steady income

Working as an employee-status massage therapist allows one to earn a steady income, but also means the therapist must follow the rules of the given facility. The massage therapist will also likely need to follow the employer's schedule and hourly working requirements.

A subcontracted massage therapist is self-employed with more flexibility but a less steady income.

65.

Which of the following is the mechanism responsible for the movement of food along the GI tract?

  • Peristalsis

  • Concentric contraction

  • Mastication lubrication

  • Mechanical digestion

Correct answer: Peristalsis

Peristalsis is the process of pushing food along the alimentary canal. This action is performed by smooth, involuntary muscles. It is a wavelike contraction that moves food through the GI tract.

Concentric contraction is the shortening of a voluntary muscle, typically describing the skeletal musculature. Mechanical digestion is the process of converting large particles of food into small particles of food. Mastication lubrication is the process of secreting saliva while chewing food.

66.

All of the following muscles are part of the rotator cuff except:

  • Rhomboid major

  • Subscapularis

  • Infraspinatus

  • Supraspinatus

Correct answer: Rhomboid major

Rhomboid major is not considered to be part of the rotator cuff. This muscle originates at the spinous processes of the T2-T5. It inserts on the medial border of the scapula, between the spine and the inferior angle. Its concentric actions are retraction (adduction), elevation, and downward rotation of the scapula. 

The rotator cuff consists of four muscles: subscapularis, infraspinatus, supraspinatus, and teres minor. This muscle group is sometimes referred to using the acronym "SITS."

67.

An older client comes to you after a month-long stay in the hospital due to a fall. She sustained a concussion when she fell, and contracted pneumonia while in the hospital. The pneumonia has mostly cleared, but she does have a pressure ulcer on her sacrum. She has been having back pain and would like treatment to be focused on her low back. What is the best course of action?

  • Agree to treatment after getting clearance directly from her physician; avoid treatment of the sacral area

  • Agree to treatment; use lighter techniques over the sacral area

  • Instruct the client to return home and wait for the ulcer to heal

  • Agree to treatment; avoid direct treatment of the sacral area

Correct answer: Agree to treatment after getting clearance directly from her physician; avoid treatment to the sacral area

Given this client's complex recent medical history, it is best to contact the physician prior to treatment. While treated pneumonia is not a contraindication to treatment, when combined with low back pain, the massage therapist should work under medical supervision. A pressure ulcer is not a general contraindication, so the client can still be treated. However, the general area should be avoided, as this is condition entails extremely sensitive tissue and weakened skin. 

This client is generally acceptable for treatment as long as the physician is aware of her condition and consents to massage. Techniques should not be applied over the area of the pressure ulcer, no matter how light they are.

68.

In which form of massage application is lubrication generally not used?

  • Myofascial release

  • Kneading

  • Skin rolling

  • Effleurage

Correct answer: Myofascial release

In most cases, a lubricant is not used with myofascial approaches. This is because the drag quality on the tissue produces the greatest effect on fascia, warming the ground substance and breaking up adhesions. Using a lubricant reduces drag and makes this approach less effective.

A lubricant should be used when a therapist performs kneading, skin rolling, or effleurage.

69.

When a part of a person's stomach protrudes through the diaphragm, they have a:

  • Hiatal hernia

  • Hemorrhoid

  • Inguinal hernia

  • Umbilical hernia

Correct answer: Hiatal hernia

When a part of a person's stomach protrudes through the diaphragm, they have hiatal hernia. A hernia is a protrusion of a loop or piece of an organ or tissue through an abnormal opening.

An inguinal hernia is a protrusion through the inguinal ring.

An umbilical hernia is a protrusion at the umbilicus.

A hemorrhoid is a dilated blood vessel that is located around the anus.

70.

Which of the following is stored for energy and an important part of the cell membrane and also a part of the myelin sheath?

  • Fats

  • Carbohydrates

  • Proteins

  • Sugars

Correct answer: Fats

Fats are one of the major food groups, along with proteins and carbohydrates.  Cell membranes and the myelin sheaths of neurons are both made up of fat. Excess fat is also stored for energy.

Carbohydrates, or sugars, are the primary source of fuel for the cell. Proteins broken down into amino acids and are used for metabolic activities. While both carbohydrates and proteins are a part of the cell membrane, and fats and proteins are part of the myelin sheath, only fat is stored for energy.

71.

What is a canal in a bone, such as the canal in the skull that runs from the external ear to the eardrum?

  • Meatus

  • Foramen

  • Fossa

  • Sinus

Correct answer: Meatus

A meatus is a tunnel or canal found in a bone, such as the canal in the skull that runs from the external ear to the eardrum.

A foramen is a rounded hole in the bone, such as the foramen of a vertebra, which allows the spinal cord to pass through the length of the spine.

A fossa is a shallow depression in the surface or at the end of the bone, such as the infraspinous fossa of the scapula.

A sinus is an air cavity in the bone. Examples include the frontal sinuses, located in the skull.

72.

What is increased with the use of cold and ice?

  • Muscle tone

  • Pain

  • Inflammation

  • Muscle spasm

Correct answer: Muscle tone

Muscle tone is increased with the use of cold and ice.

Pain, respiration, inflammation, muscle spasm, and circulation decrease with the use of cold and ice.

73.

All of the following are potential bony attachment points for ligaments or tendons except:

  • Sinus

  • Epicondyle

  • Crest

  • Tubercle

Correct answer: Sinus

A sinus is an open cavity within a bone. Sinuses are present in the frontal bones and in the ethmoid bone which is located between the eyes. Joints are not formed with sinuses, and tendons and ligaments do not attach to them. 

An epicondyle is a bony projection above a condyle, such as the medial epicondyle of the femur. A crest is a ridge on a bone, such as the iliac crest. A tubercle is a large, rounded protuberance on a bone, such as the tibial tuberosity. Ligaments may attach to any of these structures. 

74.

Which of the following is true of cardiac muscle?

  • It is a type of muscle found in the heart.

  • It is a voluntary muscle.

  • It is a type of muscle found around blood vessels.

  • It is the type of muscle that allows bones to move.

Correct answer: It is a type of muscle found in the heart.

Cardiac muscle, also known as striated involuntary muscle, is found only in the heart. It contracts rhythmically and involuntarily, continually pumping blood through the heart, the lungs, and the rest of the body.

Smooth muscle is found around blood vessels. Skeletal muscle is a voluntary muscle and allows bones to move.

75.

If a client's condition relates to inflammation, what suffix would most likely be added to the root word?

  • -itis

  • -algia

  • -osis

  • -pnea

Correct answer: -itis

The suffix -itis means inflammation. For example, arthritis refers to the inflammation of a joint.

The suffix -algia means pain. For example, neuralgia refers to nerve pain. The suffix -osis usually refers to an abnormal condition. For example, necrosis refers to the abnormal or pathological death of cells. The suffix -pnea means breathing. For example, sleep apnea occurs when a person intermittently stops breathing while asleep.

76.

Which of the following is not an effect of hot stone massage?

  • Decreased inflammation

  • Increased inflammation

  • Increased circulation

  • Compression of deeper muscle tissue

Correct answer: Decreased inflammation

Decreased inflammation is not an effect of hot stone massage. On the contrary, heat increases inflammation. When applied properly, this technique can kickstart the healing process.

Hot stone massage is known to increase inflammation and circulation. The weight of the stones compresses both superficial and deeper muscle tissue. 

77.

What is an example of an isometric contraction of a quadriceps muscle?

  • The quadriceps contracts but there is no movement and no change in muscle length.

  • The quadriceps contracts and extends the knee to a straight position.

  • The quadriceps contracts and helps to slowly lower the leg down a stair using controlled knee flexion.

  • The quadriceps is in a relaxed state.

Correct answer: The quadriceps contracts but there is no movement and no change in muscle length.

An isometric contraction is one in which the muscle contracts, but its constant length is maintained. The outcome of an isometric contraction is stabilization. The quadriceps muscles isometrically contract to stabilize the hip and/or knee.

A concentric contraction is one in which the muscle shortens. The outcome is movement and acceleration. All four quadriceps muscles concentrically contract to extend the leg at the knee joint.

An eccentric contraction is one in which the proximal and distal attachments move apart, with an outcome of control of movement and deceleration. The quadriceps muscles eccentrically contract to restrain/control flexion at the knee joint.

78.

What is hyperglycemia?

  • High blood sugar

  • Low blood sugar

  • High blood pressure

  • Low blood pressure

Correct answer: High blood sugar

Hyperglycemia is high blood sugar, and is a precursor to diabetes. When treating a client with hyperglycemia, the massage therapist should work under a doctor's supervision.

Hypoglycemia is low blood sugar. Hypertension is high blood pressure. Hypotension is low blood pressure.

79.

When removing used gloves, which of the following actions should be avoided?

  • Touching the outside of the gloves

  • Touching the inside of the gloves

  • Using an un-gloved hand to remove the other glove

  • Turning a glove inside out

Correct answer: Touching the outside of the gloves

When removing gloves that have been used, it is vital to avoid touching the external surface of the glove. Doing this results in contamination of the bare hand, defeating the purpose of using gloves. To avoid this, the therapist should turn gloves inside out as they are being removed.

Touching the inside of the gloves is acceptable since this is the uncontaminated part of the gloves. Using an un-gloved hand to remove the other glove is necessary; however, caution should be used to avoid contacting the outside of the glove. Turning gloves inside out is the acceptable way to remove them.

80.

When performing a compressive technique with the client prone on a table, the client requests that the massage therapist use less pressure. What is the best way for the massage therapist to achieve this?

  • Weight shift slightly backward through the feet in a staggered stance

  • Bend the wrist and elbow

  • Extend the back with the feet parallel to each other

  • Weight shift by flexing the back with the feet in a staggered stance

Correct answer: Weight shift slightly backward through the feet in a staggered stance 

Weight shifting is the easiest and most effective way for a therapist to control the level of pressure. This is most easily achieved when the therapist's feet are staggered. They can shift their weight forward to increase pressure, or backward to decrease it. This technique allows the therapist to keep their back straight, protecting their spine.

The back should not be intentionally flexed or extended during treatment, as this can lead to injury. Instead, the therapist should keep their spine in a neutral position as much as possible. Bending at the wrist and elbow should also be minimized, as these techniques put stress on the smaller joints, and have a smaller impact on the client's experience.

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