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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

ASPPB EPPP Exam Questions

Page 5 of 53

81.

Brian is a potential supervisee who believes that the best general theory of supervision is developmental. In doing research into the effectiveness of the various models of developmental supervision, he is eager to pursue the most effective one. 

Which of the following would be correct, based on research?  

  • There is little empirical evidence for one developmental theory over another

  • The IDM model is the most well-established and research-based

  • The Ronnestad and Skovholt model is the most effective

Correct answer: There is little empirical evidence for one developmental theory over another

Developmental theories of supervision center on the personal transition of an individual from a less-experienced professional to a more experienced practitioner. Among these are the Loganbill, Hardy, and Delworth Model, the IDM model, and the Ronnestad and Skovholt model. 

These theories differ in the specificity and structure surrounding the desired developmental course from a less to a more experienced professional. However, there is little empirical evidence that would suggest one theory is better or more effective than another.

82.

Jose is meeting with his patient, John, whom he believes has all of the clinical criteria for major depressive disorder except for the time interval needed to establish the diagnosis. Jose thinks that John's symptomology is not going to go away in the near future.

Which action would be appropriate for Jose to take with regard to making a diagnosis?

  • Jose should make a provisional diagnosis.

  • Jose should make a different diagnosis.

  • Jose should avoid making any diagnosis, because it would be unethical to do so.

  • Jose should delay diagnosing the patient until more time has passed.

Correct answer: Jose should make a provisional diagnosis.

A provisional diagnosis is often appropriate when some information is lacking or when there is almost enough criteria to diagnose, but some critical element is lacking, such as the duration of symptoms required. Jose is confident in his clinical reasoning, so a provisional diagnosis is appropriate.

Making a different diagnosis may not be valid or appropriate. However, Jose's diagnostic impression is valid and can help this patient, so some treatment of the diagnosis Jose expects to see validated soon should be undertaken. It is most ethical to make the provisional diagnosis so that John can receive the proper treatment. Finally, delaying diagnosis would not be appropriate, as this could reduce the quality of the patient's treatment.

83.

A patient enters the emergency room with head trauma after falling onto concrete from a high wall. What imaging test is most likely to be recommended right away?

  • CT scan

  • MRI

  • Wada test

  • Neuroangiography

Correct answer: CT scan

There are several types of structural imaging tests that can be administered to view images of the brain, although each test is used for different purposes. Computerized tomography (CT) provides information about the density of brain tissue and is used in emergency rooms to detect skull fractures and acute hemorrhages due to trauma. 

MRIs provide good contrast and imaging but take longer than CT scans and are more expensive.

84.

What is one benefit of an unstructured interview?

  • It allows the clinician to examine information from the interview further

  • It eliminates problems related to reliability

  • It is more efficient than a structured interview

  • It comes with a standardized scoring system

Correct answer: It allows the clinician to examine information from the interview further

An unstructured interview is a way clinicians can gain information from clients, parents, teachers, and others. An unstructured interview is typically open-ended, and frequently has only a loose structure that allows for flexibility, rapport building, and the ability to explore information that arises. The benefit of this is that the clinician can more deeply explore information that arises during the interview, given the flexibility. 

In contrast, a structured interview is a standardized method of gathering information from the interviewee. Structured interviews eliminate many problems related to reliability and are more efficient than unstructured interviews. Since unstructured interviews are open-ended and flexible, a standardized scoring system is not possible.

85.

Schemas do all the following except:

  • Avoid conflict

  • Facilitate memory recall

  • Organize information

  • Predict the future

Correct answer: Avoid conflict

Schemas are organized patterns of thought and behavior that influence what we attend to and how we absorb new information. They help us categorize and organize information, facilitate memory recall, and predict the future, among other things. They do not help us to avoid conflict.

86.

Dewayne is considering the relative value of a cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) intervention versus one based on positive psychology (PPI, or positive psychology interventions) for a group of depressed patients. 

What is a key difference between these treatments for this population? 

  • Patients served with PPI rated the experience higher

  • Patients served with CBT rated the experience higher

  • The patients rated both treatment modalities similarly

Correct answer: Patients served with PPI rated the experience higher

According to research (Lopez-Gomez et al., 2017), patients with depression attended both those groups based on CBT and PPI, but persons who attended groups based on PPI rated their experience of treatment higher.

Positive psychology is the school of intervention founded by Martin Seligman, which seeks to address more permanent, long-term stable factors in a patient's life through assessments of strength rather than pathology.

87.

A psychology student at a child therapy outpatient clinic wants to record a therapy session with a nine-year-old patient. The student will only use this recording in a private meeting with a supervisor to discuss different ways the psychology student could have conducted the session. 

Which of the following is true?

  • The psychology student should get consent from the child and their parent(s).

  • The psychology student does not need to obtain consent for the recording since it's for educational purposes.

  • The psychology student doesn't need consent since her supervisor is the only one viewing the recording.

  • The psychology student only needs to get consent from the patient.

Correct answer: The psychology student should get consent from the child and their parent(s).

According to Standard 4.03, before a psychologist makes an audio recording or video recording of a client, permission from the client must be obtained. Because the patient in this example is a minor, the legal guardian should also give permission, and the psychology student should talk with the patient about the recording to see whether they are comfortable being recorded.

The other answer choices are incorrect. The psychology student must obtain consent, and she needs to get consent, not only from the patient but also from the parents, since the patient is a minor.

88.

In regard to the dimensional model of emotion, valence and arousal are the two dimensions of ______?

  • Emotion

  • Senses

  • Cognition

  • Awareness

Correct answer: Emotion

According to Russell (1977) and others who have contributed to the dimensional model of emotion, valence (how pleasant a stimulus is) and arousal (the response to a stimulus) are two of the most significant aspects of emotion. The dimensional model, which incorporates flexibility into the emotional state of humans, is more accepted than the basic emotion model, which confines human emotions to specific categories.

Valence and arousal are not two dimensions of senses, cognition, or awareness.

89.

Which of the following is not a term used in Structural Family Therapy (SFT)?

  • Circular questioning

  • Family map

  • Enactment

  • Reframing

Correct answer: Circular questioning

Salvador Minuchin's SFT uses many terms to describe specific aspects of treatment. A family map refers to the set of rules established between family members; enactment is a roleplay technique meant to illustrate interactions, and reframing seeks to reinterpret the meaning of the behavior.

Circular questioning is a technique of comparing different responses to an identical question.

90.

According to the DSM-5-TR, which of the following is the strongest risk factor for bipolar disorders?

  • Genetics

  • Early emotional trauma

  • Cannabis use 

  • Family conflict 

Correct answer: Genetics 

According to the DSM-5-TR, genetics strongly influences the risk of bipolar disorder. In some twin studies, genetics have been found to explain 90% of the risk for bipolar disorder. Multiple genes are thought to contribute to the development of bipolar disorder. 

Child adversity, such as early emotional trauma and family conflict, can both contribute to the development of bipolar disorder. Childhood adversity is also associated with a worse prognosis and earlier onset of bipolar disorder. However, genetics appears to be a stronger contributor. Cannabis use can worsen manic symptoms, but it is not as strong of a risk factor for the development of bipolar disorder as genetics. 

91.

In terms of deciding whether an individual is not guilty by reason of insanity, which criterion has been adopted by the majority of jurisdictions in the United States?

  • The American Law Institute Test

  • The American Psychological Association Test

  • The WISC-V

  • The degree to which a person is dangerous to themselves and society 

Correct answer: The American Law Institute Test

Criteria set forth by the American Law Institute (1962) are used to decide whether an individual is not guilty by reason of insanity (NGRI) by the majority of jurisdictions in the United States. These criteria allude to whether the individual was aware of their behavior at the time of the crime.

All of the remaining answers are incorrect. There is no such thing as the American Psychological Association Test, and the WISC-V is a specific intellectual battery designed to assess cognitive functioning. Although court systems do consider the degree to which a person is dangerous, the NGRI defense is used when determining how responsible a person is for a crime.

92.

Danielle is a psychologist who specializes in psychometric tests through telepsych. She is consulting with colleagues about this who do the same sort of work in psychology, and they offer her the APA's documented concerns about the practice. 

Which of the following is not one of the APA's concerns about psychometric testing using this kind of technology?

  • Clients will be less likely to access services

  • The integrity of the testing environment

  • Appropriateness of the test for the referral

  • Licensure across state lines and jurisdictions

Correct answer: Clients will be less likely to access services 

The APA has offered guidelines for the practice of telepsychology, above and beyond the guidelines given in the general professional ethics code. These guidelines include those related to testing and assessment, but the concern that clients will be less likely to access services is not included in these guidelines. In fact, clients generally have better access to teletherapy services because of convenience. 

The APA (2013b) addresses some of the apparent liabilities of doing psychological tests over technological channels. In addition to the concern about the appropriateness of the test in question for the given referral, there are other concerns around technology, such as the integrity of the testing environment and the feasibility of administration. There is also the concern of licensure across state lines and jurisdictions, but the APA has addressed it specifically with the ASPPB Mobility Program (2015), which allows for the short-term ability to provide services without full licensure in the new jurisdiction. It is still important for psychologists to practice according to state laws, not only in the state in which they are licensed, but also in states where services are provided.

93.

Social impact theory states that the effect of an information source on an individual will increase because of which three factors?

  • Strength, immediacy, and number of sources

  • Flexibility, insurance, and approval

  • Conflict, empathy, and credibility

  • Experience, strength, and reputation

Correct answer: Strength, immediacy, and number of sources

Social impact theory states that the effect of an information source on an individual will increase with the strength of the source, the immediacy of the event, and the number of sources imposing the impact. If any of these factors change, the impact will change as well.

The remaining answer options are incorrect, as they do not list factors that impact the effect of an information source on an individual.

94.

Which of the following is the most accurate definition of a seizure? 

  • Abnormal behavior resulting from abnormal electrical firing of neurons 

  • A disturbance in consciousness alongside a change in cognition that isn't explained by dementia 

  • A state in which at least one cognitive domain, such as memory, is impaired more than expected for one's age 

  • A progressive neurodegenerative disorder associated with history of head trauma 

Correct answer: Abnormal behavior resulting from abnormal electrical firing of neurons 

Seizures occur when neurons fire abnormally, resulting in abnormal behavior of the individual. This can result in convulsions, loss of consciousness, strange emotions or behavior, and odd sensations.

A disturbance in consciousness alongside a change in cognition that isn't explained by dementia is the definition of delirium. Mild cognitive impairment is a state in which at least one cognitive domain, such as memory, is impaired more than expected for one's age. Chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE) is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder associated with a history of head trauma.

95.

According to the work of Carl Rogers, personality disorders can sometimes be caused by which of the following?

  • Inflexible perceptions and a rigid overgeneralization of experiences

  • Traumatic early childhood experiences

  • A passive approach to relationships, limiting the individual's capacity to be vulnerable

  • An overactive superego and repressed id impulses

Correct answer: Inflexible perceptions and a rigid overgeneralization of experiences

According to Carl Rogers's work, the self comprises the ideal self and the self-concept. The ideal self refers to how the individual would like to be, and the self-concept is how they view themselves. Conflicts between the ideal self and self-concept can restrict the individual's openness to new perspectives and experiences. If someone is unable to be flexible in how they perceive the world, they typically overgeneralize experiences that affect reality. This skewed perception can be manifested in several types of personality disorders.

Although early childhood trauma is understood to be a contributing factor, it was not singled out in the way inflexible perceptions and overgeneralization were. Similarly, a passive attitude about relationships and a limited capacity to be vulnerable might or might not be a factor in personality disorder development; but it was not a focus of Rogers in the way that inflexible perceptions and overgeneralization were. Addressing the superego and repressed id would be a psychodynamic approach to personality disorder development, not a characteristic of the humanist school of Carl Rogers. 

96.

In regard to research, what is an IRB?

  • A group that ensures the benefits of a study outweigh the risks

  • A group that determines a budget for an experiment

  • A group that recruits and selects participants

  • A group that determines which research projects to fund 

Correct answer: A group that ensures the benefits of a study outweigh the risks

In regard to research, the IRB (Institutional Review Board) is responsible for ensuring that the benefits of a study outweigh the risks. IRBs are often found at universities and other centers of research. Most research studies must be approved by the local IRB before they can recruit participants.

IRBs do not typically determine the budget for an experiment (although they can question financial reimbursement to participants) or recruit participants (although they can suggest changes to proposed methods of recruitment). IRBs are not responsible for determining which studies are funded; they simply ensure that a proposed study is ethical in nature, does not harm participants, and provides benefits that outweigh risks.

97.

Lou believes he has a case to pursue based on disability discrimination. Although legally blind, he is able to accomplish the essential tasks of the job but cannot perform every task in the job description. He was let go due to an inability to do these secondary tasks, which led to a negative performance evaluation. 

Which of the following failures on behalf of the employer would be Lou's strongest case for winning a lawsuit? 

  • No accommodation was offered

  • The job description was not altered to help him

  • His disability excuses him from performance evaluations

  • Lou did not have an opportunity to correct performance deficiencies

Correct answer: No accommodation was offered 

The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 deals with an employer's ability to refuse employment to someone with a physical or mental disability. In general, an employer can require the ability to perform certain essential tasks of the job. Less essential tasks, in the usual interpretation, should not be considered essential for purposes of retention and evaluation if the person cannot perform them due to disability. The ADA stipulates that a person cannot be denied employment if they are able to perform essential functions of the job; the law also states that employees must be provided with reasonable accommodations, where possible.  

Although the job description is unlikely to be changed on an individual basis, and the organization has a right to evaluate its employees, reasonable accommodation is usually offered to help the individual. Failure to offer accommodations may be a violation of the law. The ADA does not make specific stipulations about performance deficiencies; instead, it protects someone from being denied employment because of a disability. A person cannot be denied employment or promotion if they are able to perform the essential functions of their job, which Lou is able to do. 

98.

Doris is a psychologist working on rigorous psychometric exams. Due to the lack of funding in her community organization, she often has to change testing protocols in small ways that she then includes in her conclusions, describing how the amendments might have affected the results. 

Is this practice acceptable? 

  • Yes, as long as there is transparency

  • No, the whole protocol must be changed 

  • No, as testing protocols are contractual 

Correct answer: Yes, as long as there is transparency

It is not uncommon for testing protocols to be changed. The perfect administration of tests is an aspirational goal, but it is not uncommon for testing protocols to be amended for diverse reasons. As long as there is transparency about the adjustments and their potential influence on test results, amending testing protocols is permissible. 

99.

Jose, a clinical psychologist in a small private mental hospital, is a clinical supervisor with one supervisee, John. Jose has a specific way of relating to his patients, using a great deal of humor and down-to-earth mannerisms. John begins to adopt this way of relating to clients. 

Which of the following is happening?

  • Parallel process 

  • Transference 

  • Countertransference 

  • Catharsis 

Correct answer: Parallel process 

Parallel processing is a concept borrowed from psychoanalysis. In most cases, it refers to when a supervisee takes on the mannerisms of clients in relating to their supervisor. It can also mean, as in this case, the way in which supervisees take on the mannerisms or behaviors of their clinical supervisors. 

Transference is when patients project feelings from other relationships onto the therapist. Countertransference is when therapists bring extra feelings into the therapeutic relationship and project them onto clients. These concepts are similar to the parallel process, but what is described here is more aligned with the parallel process and not transference or countertransference. Catharsis is when the emotional release of repressed content occurs and allows a person to function in a more healthy way; catharsis does not apply here.  

100.

Petra is a clinical psychologist who wishes to administer a neuropsychological assessment to her client Alan, who is 11 years old. Which of the following examinations would be appropriate for this situation? 

  • NEPSY-II

  • NAB

  • Halstead-Reitan

Correct answer: NEPSY-II

The Developmental NEuroPSYchological Assessment (NEPSY-II) is a neuropsychological testing battery designed in two segments. One is for children ages 3 to 4, and the other is for children ages 5 through 16. It tests domains such as language, memory, executive functioning, and learning.

Neither the Neuropsychological Assessment Battery (NAB) nor the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery is expressly designed for non-adults; there is a version of Halstead-Reitan that can be used for children, but at this time it is not supported by robust data for that population. 

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