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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

ASWB BSW Exam Questions

Page 10 of 50

181.

A social worker has been meeting with a child who is the subject of a heated legal custody dispute. The social worker receives a letter in the mail mandating her to provide a treatment summary outlining the child's therapy as well as the parents' involvement. 

In order to appropriately release the information, the social worker should FIRST:

  • Narrow the scope of the order as much as possible and seal the records so that they are not available to the public  

  • Ask the court if the request for records can be waived to protect the parents' confidentiality

  • Have the parents sign a written consent before releasing the summaries

  • Submit the summaries to the court without showing them to the client's parents

Correct answer: Narrow the scope of the order as much as possible and seal the records so that they are not available to the public

The NASW directly addresses subpoenas and court orders to disclose records within the code of ethics. A social worker is required to protect a client's safety and confidentiality as much as possible but is expected to comply with court orders. As a result, the first step a social worker should take when issued a court order is to evaluate if compliance with the order as it stands has the potential to cause harm to the client. It seems reasonable that having records in the public domain is likely to cause harm to most any client; thus, the request to seal the record should be made. Additionally, it is generally advised to request that the order be narrowed such that only directly relevant records are shared with the courts as opposed to a client's entire case file. Once the scope has been addressed and the record sealed, it is appropriate for the social worker to comply with the court order. 

While it may be appropriate to request a waiver of the request to protect the client, the parents are not the client, and thus, it is not the social worker's ethical obligation to address their best interests. Similarly, as it is a court order, consent from the parents is not required to release the summaries. Last, while it is appropriate for the social worker to submit the summaries to the court without first showing them to the parents, it would be best to first request the scope be narrowed. 

182.

Which of the following is FALSE regarding trauma? 

  • Only situations that threaten a person's life or safety (physical or psychological) can result in trauma 

  • The subjective emotional experience of an event is what determines whether an event was traumatic or not 

  • A history of trauma makes an individual more likely to be traumatized by a future event 

Correct answer: Only situations that threaten a person's life or safety (physical or psychological) can result in trauma

Any event that results in a client feeling threatened, alone, and overwhelmed can result in trauma even if the event does not threaten a person's safety. Trauma is the result of extreme stress that erodes a client's sense of security and safety.

The subjective emotional experience of an event is what determines whether an event was traumatic. It is not determined by the objective facts of a situation. A client may be involved in a plane crash and not experience trauma but experience trauma from being in an abusive relationship. It is determined by that person's experience of the events. However, a past trauma history has been shown to make clients more likely to be traumatized by future events, particularly if the trauma occurred during childhood. Risk and resilience factors play an enormous role in client outcomes.

183.

Jennifer is in the planning stage with Marissa, a client she is working with to improve her struggles to manage symptoms of depression. Together, they develop the following goal: Marissa will identify five social activities she can engage in and attend at least two of those activities to alleviate symptoms of depression. 

Which element of a SMART goal is missing from this goal? 

  • Time-based

  • Measurable

  • Specific 

Correct answer: Time-based

SMART goals are goals that are specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-based. The goal does not identify a specific time frame in which Marissa must attend the two activities and thus is not considered time-based. 

The goal identifies a set of actions for an identified purpose and thus would be considered specific. It provides a way to measure success by stating that she must attend two activities. It is achievable based on the limited context we have in the scenario and allows wiggle room for her to exercise autonomy. It is relevant because the stated purpose is to alleviate some of her symptoms. The only missing element is the time factor. A goal that encompasses all five SMART elements would be "Marissa will identify five social activities she can engage in and attend at least two of those activities within four weeks to alleviate symptoms of depression."

184.

Poverty is likely to lead to all of the following, EXCEPT:

  • Increased likelihood of employment

  • Family breakdown

  • Inability to work

  • Physical illnesses

Correct answer: Increased likelihood of employment

Research has repeatedly indicated that it has an adverse impact on both the individual and communities. It is particularly impactful as an adverse childhood experience during early childhood and has been shown to be linked to a lower likelihood of graduating from high school and a higher likelihood of continued poverty throughout the lifespan. Additional research has linked poverty to increased rates of family breakdown, unemployment, disability, physical and mental disability, and substance use. 

Poverty is not associated with a higher rate of employment but, rather, the opposite.

185.

Justin was reprimanded by a teacher at school this morning. When he returns home, he screams at his older brother and throws a soccer ball at him. This is an example of which of the following defense mechanisms? 

  • Displacement 

  • Identification

  • Inhibition

  • Substitution 

Correct answer: Displacement 

Displacement involves redirecting a feeling, impulse, or desire toward a person or situation that is not the actual object (and is often less threatening). In this instance, Justin is directing his anger with his teacher at his brother (someone who is not an authority figure and thus is less threatening). 

Identification involves patterning oneself after a significant figure in one's life. This defense mechanism is thought to play a role in identity and personality development. Inhibition involves the loss of motivation to engage in activities that bring one pleasure out of fear that it will generate conflict. Substitution involves replacing an unacceptable or unattainable goal with one that is acceptable or attainable. 

186.

A case manager is meeting with Susie, a 22-year-old client, who has been referred to him for support in finding an appropriate therapist, supported employment agency, and housing support. During the intake, the case manager learns that the client's diagnosis is borderline personality disorder. When providing the client with a list of therapists to review, which of the following options would be MOST appropriate for this client? 

  • A therapist specializing in DBT

  • A therapist specializing in CBT

  • A therapist specializing in ACT

  • A therapist specializing in EMDR

Correct answer: A therapist specializing in DBT

DBT (Dialectical Behavioral Therapy) was derived from CBT (Cognitive Behavioral Therapy) by Marsha Linehan specifically to treat individuals experiencing suicidal ideation and has been most widely adapted as a treatment modality for those diagnosed with borderline personality disorder. It emphasizes validation of feelings, personal responsibility, and development of skills to manage distressing emotions and social relationships. 

CBT is a therapy model most often used to treat anxiety and depression and helps clients uncover unhealthy thinking patterns that may be exacerbating unwanted emotions. CBT teaches skills to shift and reframe thoughts to decrease distress. ACT, or Acceptance and Commitment Therapy, is rooted in mindfulness and emphasizes working to accept thoughts as they are without attempting to alter them and is most closely associated with the treatment of anxiety, depression, and OCD. EMDR, or Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing, is a trauma-focused therapy that uses bilateral sensation to reprocess traumatic memories and reduce distress. 

187.

A social worker writes the following synopsis of a mental status exam: 

Client presented to intake on time and dressed appropriately. They were oriented to time, place, and person. Speech was pressured throughout interview. Client reported "pissed off" mood and was observed pounding fist on table (affect was congruent). Client denied suicidal ideation and homicidal ideation, stating, "I know that's stupid." Client's insight appeared limited and judgment was impaired. Client appeared disorganized and was observed to respond to internal stimuli frequently. Client expressed delusional thought content that the government could control his actions using an implant in his brain. Client appears of average intelligence and does not appear to have memory impairment. 

Which of the following sentences correlates to the "thought process" component of the mental status exam? 

  •  Client appeared disorganized and was observed to respond to internal stimuli frequently

  • Client appears of average intelligence and does not appear to have memory impairment

  •  They were oriented to time, place, and person

  •  Client denied suicidal ideation and homicidal ideation, stating, "I know that's stupid." 

Correct answer: Client appeared disorganized and was observed to respond to internal stimuli frequently

Thought content assesses an individual's ability to perceive reality and differentiate between real stimuli and hallucinations and their level of thought organization. This section details any reported or observed response to hallucinations, delusional beliefs, or other symptoms of psychosis. 

A client's memory and intelligence are assessed during the intellectual functioning section of the mental status exam, including both short and long-term memory impairment. Reporting centered around understanding of person, time, and place is found in the orientation section and can indicate delusional belief systems, neurocognitive issues, and other neurological illnesses. Reporting centered around suicidal and homicidal ideation is located in the risk assessment portion of the mental status exam and assesses an individual's ability to determine the level of risk and the possible need for a higher or lower level of care and/or observation. 

188.

A school-based social worker is assisting the administration in developing an IEP for a high school student who is experiencing behavioral problems in the classroom following their adoption being finalized. Which of the following information-gathering tools would be LEAST helpful in developing an IEP for this student? 

  • A genogram 

  • An ecomap 

  • Psychological testing 

  • Prior education records 

Correct answer: A genogram 

A genogram is a graphical depiction of the client and their extended family. Genograms include interactions between generations, hereditary issues, substance-use history, losses, roles, biological ties, and cultural and ethnic information. While there would be helpful information in a genogram, the emphasis on biological and hereditary issues would not be as relevant to an adopted child as the information found in some other tools.

An ecomap is a visual demonstration of the systems with which a client interacts and the nature of their relationship with those systems. This tool would be helpful for identifying supports, stressors, and individualized dynamics the child experiences. Psychological testing can include IQ testing and screens for mental illness (such as depression, personality disorder, or anxiety), may shed light on the child's abilities and barriers related to behaviors, and would be extremely valuable. Prior education records would shed light on the student's baseline performance, any prior issues and how they were addressed, and the child's educational capabilities and would likely provide valuable insight that could be used to develop a new IEP. 

189.

Which of the following refers to a disturbance or change in the continuity of memory, identity, perception or consciousness?

  • Dissociation

  • Disorientation

  • Dissolution

  • Disruption

Correct answer: Dissociation

Dissociation refers to the phenomenon some experience of a discontinuity in the integration of memory, identity, perception, or consciousness. It differs from disorientation in that the latter is more a problem with one's orientation to the immediate environment such as person, time, or place.

"Dissolution" and "disruption" are not terms generally used to describe states of consciousness in treatment.

190.

Mary is evaluating her client, Trina, who is depressed. Trina has had many family members who have suffered from depression. Though in most respects, Trina's life appears to be going well, it is understood that a biochemical imbalance is likely the cause of her depression.

Which of the following BEST describes Trina's depression?

  • Endogenous depression

  • Exogenous depression

  • Paragenetic depression

  • Psychogenetic depression

Correct answer: Endogenous depression

Endogenous depression describes depression of which the origin is considered to be interior, such as a biochemical imbalance or heredity.

The other answers are incorrect. Exogenous depression refers to depression with an exterior cause. "Paragenetic depression" and "psychogenetic depression" are both fabricated terms.

191.

When conducting a social work assessment, what is the benefit of gathering a client's family history? 

  • It assists in identifying potential hereditary health conditions and patterns

  • It helps in determining the client's financial status and employment history

  • It primarily helps to understand the client's daily routines and hobbies

Correct answer: It assists in identifying potential hereditary health conditions and patterns

Gathering information about a client's family history is crucial in identifying potential hereditary health conditions and patterns that may have a significant impact on the client's well-being. By understanding the family's medical history, social workers can assess the client's risk factors and develop appropriate interventions or referrals.

While financial status and employment history are important factors in a social work assessment, they are not the primary reasons for gathering information about a client's family history. Socioeconomic status and employment history are important information to gather but are found in the social section of a biopsychosocial assessment. Daily routines and hobbies are important to consider in a social work assessment, but they are not the primary focus when gathering information about a client's family history. Information about a client's daily routines and hobbies is essential and can be helpful in identifying strengths and designing interventions, but it would be found in other sections of the assessment. 

192.

A social worker is working with a client who frequently reports experiencing various physical symptoms, such as headaches, fatigue, and digestive issues, despite medical evaluations showing no underlying medical causes. The client expresses frustration and anxiety about these symptoms, which interfere with their daily life. Which term best describes the symptoms exhibited by the client?

  • Somatization 

  • Conversion disorder

  • Hypochondria

  • Dissociation 

Correct answer: Somatization 

Somatization refers to the tendency to express psychological distress and emotional disturbance through physical symptoms. The client's repeated reports of physical symptoms without underlying medical explanations, along with the emotional distress caused by these symptoms, aligns with the concept of somatization.

Conversion disorder involves the conversion of psychological distress into physical symptoms affecting motor or sensory functioning. The client has not expressed symptoms disrupting motor or sensory abilities. Hypochondria involves excessive worry and preoccupation with having a serious illness when there is no evidence that a serious illness is present. Dissociation refers to detachment from reality, emotions, or identity and does not align with the described symptoms. 

193.

An afterschool program has hired a social worker as a consultant to help them refine their process of matching at-risk youth with appropriate community mentors. They report that lately, they feel as though they have had a significant increase in incompatible matches and cite personality clashes. They report that they would like to match children who are shy with adults who are more outgoing and vice versa. Which assessment instrument is the BEST tool to assist the agency? 

  • Myers-Briggs Type Indicator

  • The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory 

  • The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Test

  • The thematic apperception test 

Correct answer: Myers-Briggs Type Indicator

The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is a tool used to assess personality types based on four domains. The first determines introversion vs. extroversion. The second determines perception and rates a person as "sensation" or "intuition" oriented. The third determines processing type, either "thinking" or "feeling." The final domain discerns whether a person is "judging" or "perceiving." This tool would be most useful for matching shy children with extroverted adults and shy adults with extroverted children. 

The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory assesses for various forms of psychopathology and personality disorders and would not be appropriate. The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Test measures cognitive functioning and would not provide personality-rooted information. The thematic apperception test is projective and provides information about perception and imagination to assist in identifying needs. 

194.

In which stage of change is a client likely to be MOST ambivalent?

  • Contemplation

  • Precontemplation

  • Preparation

  • Action

Correct answer: Contemplation

Change is generally considered to proceed in four stages. In precontemplation, a client may not believe there needs to be change at all. The next stage, contemplation, is where there is a struggle of ambivalence about committing to a course of change. Preparation is the stage where the client is taking concrete steps and planning, and action is the physical commitment to the plan.

195.

James is a conflict resolution consultant for a major retailer. While working on his most recent case, he has worked with the two employees experiencing conflict, and together they have agreed to establish clear, written boundaries with one another. What should James do NEXT, using conflict management strategies? 

  • Implement the agreed upon changes 

  • Complete an assessment of the situation 

  • Identify the existing and possible future conflicts

  • Decrease the amount of time between sessions 

Correct answer: Implement the agreed upon changes 

There are four prescribed steps of managing conflict: 

  1. Identifying the current and/or potential conflicts
  2. Completing an assessment of the situation 
  3. Selecting a strategy to implement 
  4. Implementing the selected strategy or intervention 

As the involved parties have already agreed on a strategy to move forward, one can presume that the first two steps have been completed. As a result, the next step is to engage in the newly adopted intervention. Decreasing the time between sessions is a useful strategy when conflict is escalating throughout the process. 

196.

Christine is a social worker at a substance-use treatment center. She has been working with a new client and is facing an ethical dilemma. She has reviewed the NASW Code of Ethics and identified the ethical code at the root of the dilemma. She determines that there is an ethical dilemma. She then compares the situation to the core values of the social work profession and suggests modifications to her agency. After some discussion, the agency agrees to implement policy changes. What should Christine do NEXT? 

  • Monitor for the possibility of new ethical dilemmas 

  • She has completed the process of ethical problem-solving 

  • Evaluate the changes implemented 

Correct answer: Monitor for the possibility of new ethical dilemmas 

There are six steps in the ethical problem-solving model: 

  1. Review the NASW Code of Ethics to identify ethical standards in question 
  2. Determine whether an ethical issue exists
  3. Review the ethical issue in light of the core values of social work 
  4. Identify modifications to resolve the issue
  5. Implement the identified modifications
  6. Monitor modifications for any possible new dilemmas 

Christine has successfully completed the first five steps of the process and next needs to monitor the changes made at the agency to ensure that new ethical issues have not developed. 

Ethical problem-solving can be viewed as an ongoing process that involves monitoring for future ethical dilemmas, and the social worker must do that in this case as well. Evaluation of changes is not a part of the ethical problem-solving model. 

197.

A social worker employed by an agency that provides mental health services to children and families notices that during breaks and lunch hours, other therapists often talk about their clients' problems openly. The social worker feels uncomfortable during these conversations, as he feels that information about clients should only be given on a "need to know" basis.

What should the social worker do?

  • Consult the NASW Code of Ethics to more specifically define the dilemma

  • Ask other employees of the agency if they also feel uncomfortable during these conversations

  • Offer to present training on confidentiality to workers at the agency

Correct answer: Consult the NASW Code of Ethics to more specifically define the dilemma

In the case of an ethical dilemma, a social worker should weigh the ethical issues in light of key social work values and principles as defined by the NASW Code of Ethics. If the social worker finds a value or principle that is not being upheld in the work environment, they should suggest modifications in light of ethical values and principles. In this case, the social worker's coworkers are not sufficiently honoring the clients' right to confidentiality.

The social worker might ask for feedback from others, but not before carefully examining the Code of Ethics. The social worker may, in the future, offer training to others on the topic of confidentiality, but this is not the first thing he should do.

198.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding informed consent?

  • Informed consent is essential to ensure that clients have a clear understanding of the therapy process, goals, risks, and their rights, and they provide their agreement to proceed voluntarily

  • Informed consent is not necessary in the therapeutic relationship because clients implicitly trust the expertise of the social worker

  • Informed consent is a legal requirement that only involves obtaining the client's signature on a consent form

Correct answer: Informed consent is essential to ensure that clients have a clear understanding of the therapy process, goals, risks, and their rights, and they provide their agreement to proceed voluntarily

Informed consent is a cornerstone of ethical practice. It ensures clients have the information they need to make informed decisions about their treatment, fostering transparency, respect for autonomy, and collaboration in the therapeutic relationship. If a client is not their own legal guardian, the social worker must obtain consent from the guardian and assent from the client.

Informed consent is a fundamental ethical and legal principle critical to the therapeutic relationship that ensures clients are informed about the therapy process and their rights, allowing them to make autonomous decisions about their treatment. While obtaining a signed consent form is part of the process, true informed consent goes beyond a signature. It involves providing the client with comprehensive information about the therapy process and helps build trust. 

199.

Russell has been admitted to the mental hospital many times due to his severe Bipolar Disorder. Which of the following is MOST likely to be prescribed to him?

  • Lithium

  • Effexor

  • Ativan

  • Paxil

Correct answer: Lithium

Lithium (lithium carbonate) is most likely to be used to treat the symptoms of Bipolar Disorder.

Effexor and Paxil are both antidepressants and are therefore more likely to be used to medicate the symptoms of persistent negative mood such as are present in Major Depressive Disorder. Ativan is an anxiolytic, used to treat symptoms of anxiety disorders.

200.

A social worker at an assisted living facility is meeting with one of the residents, Mrs. J, who has early stages of Alzheimer's disease. Mrs. J reports that she recently made a new friend, an employee of the facility and a member of the housecleaning staff. Mrs. J tells the social worker that her friend is in need of money to pay her rent and feed her children, and so Mrs. J has been giving her friend $100 each week to help.

This is an example of:

  • Exploitation

  • Emotional abuse

  • Therapeutic alliance

  • Spending disorder

Correct answer: Exploitation

One form of maltreatment of older adults is financial exploitation. In these situations, individuals may befriend an older person to gain their trust so that the older adult's money or items of value can be inappropriately used for the individual's wants or needs and not the care of the older adult. Social workers may be asked to intervene sometimes when they suspect clients are being exploited.

Emotional abuse is when an individual is constantly criticized, belittled, teased, or ignored, or when praise and affection are withheld by caregivers. The therapeutic alliance refers to the trusting relationship between client and social worker. "Spending disorder" is a fabricated term.

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