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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

BCEN CEN Exam Questions

Page 6 of 50

101.

Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to play a role in the cause of depression?

  • Nutritional factors

  • Biological factors

  • Genetic factors

  • Psychosocial factors 

Correct answer: Nutritional factors

The development of depression is thought to be multifactorial and can include biological, genetic, physiologic, and psychosocial factors. Nutritional factors may influence the severity and duration of depression to some extent, but nutrition is not considered a major factor in the development of depression.

102.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a nurse experiencing workplace violence?

  • A nurse is caring for a patient who was shot while selling drugs

  • A coworker verbally berates a nurse in front of their colleagues

  • A nurse is groped by a patient who is a minor

  • A patient strikes the nurse while they are inserting an IV 

Correct answer: A nurse is caring for a patient who was shot while selling drugs

A patient who was shot while selling drugs could be considered a victim of workplace violence, depending on the circumstances. However, it would more likely be an example of a patient who experienced workplace violence, not a nurse experiencing workplace violence. Verbal abuse, sexual assault, and physical assault are all considered workplace violence when these actions are directed toward a nurse.

103.

Which of the following is FALSE regarding hemophilia?

  • All types of hemophilia are equally severe

  • Hemophilia can cause continuous bleeding

  • Hemophilia is caused by a lack of clotting factors

  • Hemophilia inhibits the formation of a firm fibrin clot

Correct answer: All types of hemophilia are equally severe

Hemophilia is a coagulation disorder that is caused by the absence of factor VIII (referred to as hemophilia A) or factor IX (referred to as hemophilia B). It is an inherited disease that occurs most often in males. Hemophilia prevents the formation of a firm fibrin clot, which results in continuous bleeding. The severity of hemophilia depends on the extent of factor function in each particular patient and can therefore vary widely. 

104.

When performing Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) on a patient in cardiac arrest, what is the maximum amount of time that should be spent checking for a pulse between compressions?

  • Ten seconds

  • 15 seconds

  • Five seconds

  • Three seconds

Correct answer: Ten seconds

The nurse should feel for a pulse for at least five seconds but should not interrupt CPR for longer than ten seconds to check for a pulse. If no pulse is detected after five to ten seconds, begin another round of 30 chest compressions.

105.

Which of the following options represents the qualities of a vesicular breath sound?

  • Soft intensity, low pitch, and rustling quality

  • Medium intensity, medium pitch, and blowing quality

  • Loud intensity, high pitch, and hollow quality

  • Loud intensity, medium pitch, and rustling quality

Correct answer: Soft intensity, low pitch, and rustling quality

Vesicular breath sounds are characterized by their low pitch and soft intensity. They are normally heard over the peripheral lung fields. These sounds are softer and lower-pitched than bronchial breath sounds, which are heard over the trachea and major bronchi. Vesicular breath sounds are more prominent during inspiration than expiration.

A bronchovesicular breath sound should have a medium intensity, a medium pitch, and a breezy quality. A bronchial breath sound should have a loud intensity, a high pitch, and a hollow quality.

106.

A 27-year-old woman with a known ovarian cyst is MOST likely to exhibit which of the following symptoms?

  • Pelvic pain 

  • Jaundice

  • Shortness of breath

  • Hypertension 

Correct answer: Pelvic pain 

Pelvic pain is a common symptom of ovarian cysts, especially when they are large, have ruptured, or cause torsion. The pain can be acute or chronic, depending on the nature and status of the cyst. The other symptoms listed are not typically associated with ovarian cysts.

107.

In regard to the use of heat therapy for musculoskeletal injuries, which of the following statements is FALSE?

  • Heat therapy should be used on acute injuries that are less than 48 hours old

  • Heat therapy is generally used for injuries that do not include inflammation or swelling

  • Heat therapy is used to relax tight muscles

  • Heat therapy should not be used when bleeding disorders are present

Correct answer: Heat therapy should be used on acute injuries that are less than 48 hours old

Heat therapy should be applied to acute injuries only if they are older than 48 hours; it should not be used on injuries less than 48 hours old. Typically, heat therapy is indicated for chronic injuries. It is also beneficial before exercising to enhance joint connective tissue elasticity and stimulate blood flow. Heat therapy is generally not recommended for injuries with inflammation or swelling, as cold therapy is preferred for these conditions. Heat therapy is effective in relaxing tight muscles but should be avoided in cases of bleeding disorders.

108.

What is the MOST common form of workplace violence experienced by healthcare workers?

 

  • Verbal abuse

  • Physical assault

  • Sexual assault

  • Stalking

Correct answer: Verbal abuse

Verbal abuse is the most common form of workplace violence experienced by healthcare workers. It includes shouting, swearing, and other forms of verbal harassment that can create a hostile work environment.

Physical assault involves physical contact intended to cause harm. While serious and impactful, it is less common than verbal abuse in healthcare settings. Sexual harassment includes unwanted sexual advances or behavior. Although significant, it occurs less frequently than verbal abuse. Stalking involves repeated, unwanted attention and harassment. This is relatively rare in comparison to other forms of workplace violence.

109.

A 66-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of sudden, severe, sharp pain on the right side of her face. The pain is triggered by chewing and sometimes even by touching her face. There are no visible signs of trauma or infection. 

Which of the following conditions is MOST likely responsible for her symptoms?

  • Trigeminal neuralgia 

  • Acute sinusitus 

  • Temporomandibular Joint Disorder (TMJD)

  • Herpes zoster infection

Correct answer: Trigeminal neuralgia 

Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by sudden, severe, sharp, and shooting facial pain that follows the distribution of the trigeminal nerve. It is often triggered by routine activities such as eating, speaking, or touching the face. The absence of trauma or infection signs and the specific triggers mentioned make trigeminal neuralgia the most likely diagnosis. 

Acute sinusitis typically presents with pressure-like pain, congestion, and nasal discharge. TMJD typically presents with pain and discomfort in the jaw, and a herpes zoster infection in the facial region presents with a painful rash.

110.

A 25-year-old female patient is brought to the emergency department after being found in her home with malfunctioning gas appliances. She is confused, dizzy, and has a headache.

What test would be MOST useful in confirming carbon monoxide poisoning?

  • Arterial Blood Gas (ABG)

  • Complete Blood Count (CBC)

  • Electrocardiogram (ECG)

  • Serum glucose level

Correct answer: Arterial Blood Gas (ABG)

An ABG test is most useful in confirming carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning as it can measure the levels of carboxyhemoglobin directly. This test helps assess the severity of CO poisoning and guides treatment decisions.

A CBC does not provide information specific to CO poisoning. It is used to check for anemia, infection, and other conditions. An ECG can detect heart abnormalities, but it is not specific to diagnosing CO poisoning. Serum glucose levels measure blood sugar and are not relevant in confirming CO poisoning.

111.

A 13-year-old male patient is seen in the emergency department for an acute asthma exacerbation. As you're taking his medical history, his parents report that he uses his inhaler daily and has some limitations in playing endurance sports due to his asthma. 

How would you characterize the severity of his asthma?

  • Moderate persistent

  • Severe persistent

  • Mild intermittent

  • Mild persistent

Correct answer: Moderate persistent

Asthma is a chronic disease of the airway characterized by hyperreactivity, airflow obstruction, and inflammation. There are four classifications for the severity of asthma:

  1. Mild intermittent asthma consists of symptoms that occur twice a week or less and nighttime symptoms twice a month or less. Symptoms do not interfere with activity, and an inhaler is used two days a week or less. 
  2. Mild persistent asthma consists of symptoms that occur more than three times a week but less than once a day, minor limitations to normal activity, and use of an inhaler more than two days a week but not daily. 
  3. Moderate persistent asthma consists of daily symptoms and nighttime symptoms more than once a week but not nightly, some limitations on activity, and daily use of an inhaler.
  4. Severe persistent asthma consists of continual daytime symptoms and frequent nighttime symptoms, limited to no control of symptoms, and extreme limitations on normal activities.

112.

Having your patient raise their eyebrows, close their eyelids tightly to resistance, show their teeth, and puff out their cheeks is a method of assessing which cranial nerve?

  • CN VII

  • CN IX

  • CN II

  • CN XII

Correct answer: CN VII

The seventh cranial nerve (CN VII), also known as the facial nerve, is responsible for facial motor function and taste. It can be assessed by having the patient raise their eyebrows, close their eyelids tightly to resistance, show their teeth, smile and frown, and puff out their cheeks. The facial nerve controls facial expression and taste (only on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue), while the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) controls taste on the posterior third of the tongue.

CN II, the optic nerve, is responsible for vision. CN XII, the hypoglossal nerve, is responsible for tongue movement.

113.

Which of the following is a sign of right-sided heart failure?

  • Jugular venous distension

  • Pulmonary edema

  • Crackles

  • Shortness of breath

Correct answer: Jugular venous distension

Heart failure occurs when the heart can't pump blood sufficiently, leading to insufficient oxygen supply to the body's tissues. It manifests in two forms: systolic, in which the heart fails to pump efficiently, and diastolic, in which the heart struggles to fill with blood properly. This condition can impact the left ventricle, causing congestion in the pulmonary veins, or the right ventricle, leading to systemic circulatory congestion. Symptoms associated with right-sided heart failure are peripheral edema, distended jugular veins, abdominal swelling due to fluid accumulation (ascites), and nausea.

Symptoms of left sided heart failure include shortness of breath, dyspnea, crackles, and pulmonary edema.

114.

What diagnosis BEST describes the following symptoms: chronic, reversible, obstructive pulmonary disease with airway inflammation not caused by infection, intermittent airflow obstruction, and bronchial hyperresponsiveness?

  • Asthma

  • Bronchitis

  • Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

  • Pleural effusion

Correct answer: Asthma 

Asthma affects millions of Americans and is considered the most prevalent chronic childhood disease. It is a chronic disease characterized by airway hyperreactivity, inflammation, and reversible airflow obstruction. Exacerbations are common and can become life-threatening if poorly managed.

COPD consists of irreversible chronic bronchitis or emphysema. Bronchitis is a self-limiting respiratory infection. Pleural effusion is an acute condition in which there is an abnormal collection of fluid in the pleural space of the lungs and is caused by an underlying problem. Identification and treatment of the underlying disease process will ultimately resolve the effusion.

115.

For a patient diagnosed with Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA) presenting with a surgical site infection in the emergency department, which infection control precaution is MOST appropriate to prevent the spread of the infection?

  • Contact

  • Standard

  • Droplet

  • Airborne

Correct answer: Contact

MRSA is a highly contagious infection that is resistant to many antibiotics. It may cause life-threatening cases of bloodstream infections, surgical site infections, or pneumonia. For a patient diagnosed with a MRSA infection, especially in cases involving surgical site infections, contact precautions should be utilized. This includes keeping the patient in an isolation room and donning gloves and gowns for patient care. Following the patient's discharge from the room, special cleaning measures should be taken to disinfect the equipment appropriately.

Standard precautions are basic infection control measures used for all patients regardless of their diagnosis. Alone, they are not sufficient for a patient with MRSA. Droplet precautions are used for diseases that are spread through large respiratory droplets, such as influenza or pertussis. Airborne precautions are used for diseases that are transmitted through very small airborne particles, such as tuberculosis, measles, and varicella (chickenpox).

116.

Which of the following medications is considered first-line treatment for a patient diagnosed with acute pericarditis?

  • Anti-inflammatory medications

  • Calcium channel blockers

  • Beta-blockers

  • Anticoagulants

Correct answer: Anti-inflammatory medications 

Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) are the cornerstone of treatment for acute pericarditis because they effectively reduce the inflammation of the pericardium, which is the primary cause of clinical symptoms such as chest pain. By reducing inflammation, NSAIDs alleviate pain and decrease the potential for complications related to ongoing inflammation, such as the formation of adhesions or effusion.

Calcium channel blockers are primarily used to treat hypertension and cardiac conditions that involve the regulation of calcium ions, such as arrhythmias and some forms of angina. They do not have a primary role in reducing or treating the inflammation associated with pericarditis, which is the fundamental pathological process in this condition. Beta-blockers are used to manage various cardiac issues, including hypertension, some arrhythmias, and ischemic heart disease, by slowing the heart rate and reducing cardiac workload. Like calcium channel blockers, they do not address the inflammation of the pericardium in pericarditis. Anticoagulants are used to prevent blood clot formation, a crucial treatment in conditions like atrial fibrillation, deep vein thrombosis, and pulmonary embolism. In the context of pericarditis, using anticoagulants can be risky without a specific indication as they could increase the risk of bleeding into the pericardial space, especially if there is any pericardial damage. They do not address the inflammation and are not indicated as a routine treatment for acute pericarditis unless there are other coexisting conditions that warrant their use.

117.

A 28-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department after a high-speed motor vehicle collision. He is experiencing severe respiratory distress and hypotension, and he has distended neck veins. Upon examination, you note hyperresonance to percussion on the left side of the chest and absent breath sounds on the same side. 

You suspect the patient is deteriorating from which of the following conditions? 

  • Tension pneumothorax

  • Hemothorax

  • Pericardial tamponade

  • Flail chest with associated pneumothorax

Correct answer: Tension pneumothorax

The patient is exhibiting classic signs of a tension pneumothorax. This condition occurs when air trapped in the pleural space builds up pressure, causing a shift of the mediastinum and compressing vital structures, which can rapidly lead to cardiovascular collapse. Immediate needle decompression is required to relieve the pressure and stabilize the patient.

Hemothorax involves the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity, typically presenting with diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side and dullness to percussion, not hyperresonance. 

Pericardial tamponade involves fluid accumulation in the pericardial sac, leading to compression of the heart. Symptoms include hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds (Beck’s triad) rather than the respiratory distress and hyperresonance observed in tension pneumothorax. 

Flail chest results from multiple rib fractures causing a segment of the chest wall to move paradoxically. While it can be associated with a pneumothorax, the primary signs are paradoxical chest wall movement and respiratory distress. Hyperresonance and absent breath sounds are specific to tension pneumothorax. 

118.

A 60-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss in his right ear. His blood pressure is 125/82 mmHg, his heart rate is 80 beats per minute, his respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, and his temperature is 98.6°F (37°C). 

Which intervention is MOST likely to be beneficial in managing his symptoms of Meniere's disease?

  • Bedrest in a quiet, dark room

  • Antiemetic medications

  • Antibiotic therapy

  • Surgical intervention

Correct answer: Bedrest in a quiet, dark room

Bed rest in a quiet, dark room is likely the most beneficial intervention because it helps reduce sensory input that can exacerbate vertigo, a primary symptom of Meniere's disease. By minimizing motion and exposure to noise and light, the patient can achieve relief from intense vertigo episodes.

Antiemetic medications can help control nausea and vomiting associated with vertigo but do not address the underlying vestibular disturbances directly. Antibiotic therapy is not appropriate for Meniere's disease as it is not caused by a bacterial infection but rather involves the inner ear's fluid dynamics. Surgical intervention, such as endolymphatic sac decompression, is considered only for severe, refractory cases of Meniere's disease that do not respond to conservative treatments. It is not first-line management.

119.

Inflammation of the cornea is known as which of the following?

  • Keratitis

  • Blepharitis

  • Hordeolum

  • Chalazion

Correct answer: Keratitis

Keratitis is the generic term for inflammation of the cornea. Keratitis has a number of potential causes, including viral (herpes simplex), bacterial, fungal, or amoebic. The use of contact lenses, as well as exposure to ultraviolet light, increases the risk of keratitis. Patients present with pain and photophobia, purulent drainage, pus, decreased vision, and a reddened sclera. Treatment depends on the cause, though topical cycloplegic and systemic analgesics are recommended for pain control.

Blepharitis is an acute or chronic inflammation of the margins of the eyelid. A hordeolum, also known as a sty, is an abscess of the eyelid. A chalazion is an internal hordeolum caused by chronic inflammation of the oil glands on the inner surface of the eyelid. 

120.

Which of the following organisms is LEAST likely to cause uveitis in an adult? 

  • Gonorrhea 

  • Herpes zoster

  • Varicella zoster

  • Syphilis

Correct answer: Gonorrhea 

Gonorrhea has the potential to cause uveitis in an infant who is delivered vaginally if the mother has an active infection. But for adults, gonorrhea is unlikely to cause uveitis. As a Sexually Transmitted Infection (STI), gonorrhea is unlikely to transmit to the surface of the eye due to the blink reflex, even during sexual activities. It more often causes conjunctivitis or keratitis.

Herpes zoster and varicella zoster are both common causes of viral uveitis. Syphilis can cause uveitis due to its infiltration of the nervous system. Unlike gonorrhea, syphilis does not have to come into contact with the surface of the eye to cause uveitis.

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