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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

BCSP ASP Exam Questions

Page 3 of 50

41.

You take a sound level measurement five feet from a noise source, and the result is 95 dBA. What is the noise level measurement from 12 feet away?

  • 87.4 dBA

  • 90.1 dBA

  • 85.3 dBA

  • 86.1 dBA

Correct answer: 87.4 dBA

Solve using the equation dB1 = dB0+20 log10(d0 / d1).

dB1 = 95 dBA + 20 log10(5 / 12)

dB1 = 95 dBA + 20(-0.38)

dB1 = 95 dBA + (-7.60)

dB1 = 87.4 dBA

42.

For educating adults, what is the MOST effective method?

  • Doing and then teaching others

  • Watching

  • Listening 

  • Reading

Correct answer: Doing and then teaching others

The most effective method for teaching is by doing, giving the learners the opportunity to take action and create an experience. Then, adult learners should teach what they just learned. This method has the highest percentage of retention. 

Watching, reading, and listening have lower retention rates than actually doing something. 

43.

In a fall-protection safety program, lanyards are an example of which resource? 

  • Deceleration devices

  • Leading edges

  • Body harnesses

  • Lifelines

Correct answer: Deceleration devices

A deceleration device is any mechanism, such as a rope grab or lanyard, that serves to dissipate a substantial amount of energy during a fall arrest or to otherwise limit the energy imposed on an employee during a fall arrest.

A leading edge is the edge of a floor, roof, or formwork for a floor or other walking or working surface that changes location as additional floor, roof, decking, or formwork sections are placed, formed, or constructed. A body harness consists of straps that are secured around the employee, distributing the fall arrest forces over the thighs, pelvis, waist, chest, and shoulders. A lifeline consists of a flexible line for connection to an anchorage at one end, allowing the wearer to hang vertically or stretch horizontally; it serves as a means for connecting other components of a personal fall-arrest system to the anchorage.

44.

Which safety training is MOST important for managers and supervisors? 

  • Hazards and controls

  • Spill cleanup

  • Incident investigation 

  • Evacuation 

Correct answer: Hazards and controls

All managers and supervisors need to be trained on hazards and controls, a critical part of all risk assessments. Managers and supervisors are the leaders of the organization. They must show commitment to ensuring a safe workplace and fostering a positive safety culture. 

Spill cleanup, incident investigation, and evacuation are necessary training topics for all levels of an organization. 

45.

What is one of the major reasons for measuring health and safety performance?

  • To hold those in charge accountable for the performance of the program

  • To provide information to insurance companies

  • To provide information to the public about the company's commitment to safety 

  • To ensure that employees are held accountable for implementing the program

Correct answer: To hold those in charge accountable for the performance of the program

One of the main purposes of measuring performance is to provide information to the decision-makers and those accountable for the overall success of the program. The measurement information sustains the operation and development of the health and safety management system—and hence the control of risk—by providing information on how the system operates in practice, identifying areas where remedial action is required, providing a basis for continuous improvement, and providing feedback and motivation.

Health and safety performance is not measured in order to provide information to insurance companies, to provide information to the public about the company's commitment to safety, or to ensure that employees are held accountable for implementing the program. 

46.

Which act was passed by Congress on October 17, 1986, to address concerns about the protection of chemical emergencies and hazards?

  • Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act

  • Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act

  • Toxic Substances Control Act

  • Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act

Correct answer: Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act

The Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act (EPCRA) was enacted by Congress on October 17, 1986, to address issues concerning chemical hazards and emergencies. 

The remaining acts are unrelated to the protection of chemical emergencies and hazards. 

47.

A manager at your company thinks that most people find work unpleasant and would rather be told what to do than take initiative on their own. He believes employees lack the skills to solve major organizational problems and need to be closely controlled. 

This manager believes in which of the following? 

  • Theory X

  • Theory Y

  • Maslow's hierarchy of needs

  • Herzberg's motivational theory

Correct answer: Theory X

Theory X was developed by Douglas McGregor in 1960 as a way of explaining organization management and employee motivation. Proponents of Theory X operate under the belief that work is inherently distasteful to most people; that they will attempt to avoid work whenever possible; that most people are not ambitious, have little desire for responsibility, and prefer to be directed; that most people have little aptitude for creativity in solving organizational problems; that most people are self-centered and must be closely controlled; and that most people are resistant to change and are unintelligent.

Theory Y, also developed by McGregor, states that employees are motivated primarily at the esteem and self-actualization levels of need. It is in clear contrast to Theory X. Maslow's hierarchy of needs describes individuals as having needs that are ranked according to importance. Basic physiological needs are the most important, followed by safety, love and belonging, esteem, and self-actualization. Herzberg's motivational theory states that motivation can be split into hygiene factors and motivation factors.

48.

Cs-137 has an initial activity of 6050 GBq/g. What would be the activity after 13 years of decay, given a half-life of 30.0 years?

  • 4480.61 GBq/g

  • 1222.70 GBq/g

  • 3253.89 GBq/g

  • 5230.43 GBq/g

Correct answer: 4480.61 GBq/g

Radioactive decay can be calculated by:

Nt = N0e-γ(t)

N13y = 6050 GBq/g x e-(0.693/30.0y)13

N13y = 6050 GBq/g x 0.7406

N13y = 4480.61 GBq/g

49.

What should be the primary purpose of an incident investigation?

  • To prevent the same incident from recurring

  • To identify and penalize the person who caused the incident

  • To gather information about insurance claims

  • To defend a position in a legal argument

Correct answer: To prevent the same incident from recurring

Incident investigations should occur following an incident in the workplace. The primary purpose of these investigations should be to prevent the recurrence of the same accident in the future.

The main purpose of incident investigations should not be to place blame on others, satisfy insurance requirements, or defend a position in a legal argument. The most important thing is that the same incident does not happen again in the future.

50.

What is the maximum allowable distance for a fire extinguisher according to OSHA? 

  • 75 feet

  • 10 feet

  • 20 feet

  • 50 feet

Correct answer: 75 feet

According to OSHA, the maximum allowable distance for a portable fire extinguisher for light or ordinary hazards is 75 feet. Whenever flammable or combustible liquids are being used, this allowable distance is reduced to 50 feet or less based on the type of hazard.

51.

What is the maximum amount of pesticide that can be on a raw product and still be considered safe for use?

  • Tolerance

  • Residue

  • Exemption

  • Coating

Correct answer: Tolerance

Before the EPA can register a pesticide used on raw agricultural products, it must grant a tolerance or exemption. Tolerance is the maximum amount of pesticide that can be on a raw product but is still considered safe for use. Food or feed residues that lack tolerances or have residues exceeding the established tolerances are subject to seizure.

Residue refers to the actual amount of pesticide remaining on the product. An exemption can be granted if it is within the limits of a tolerance established by the EPA. "Coating" is not a term used in the field of pesticide control.

52.

The frequency component (i.e. frequency multiplier) used in the NIOSH lifting equation is defined by all the following EXCEPT:

  • The amount of weight lifted by one worker

  • The number of lifts per minute

  • The vertical height of the lift from the floor

  • The amount of time engaged in the lifting activity

Correct answer: The amount of weight lifted by one worker

The frequency multiplier is defined by three things:

  1. The number of lifts per minute (frequency)
  2. The amount of time engaged in the lifting activity (duration)
  3. The vertical height of the lift from the floor

Lifting frequency (F) refers to the average number of lifts made per minute, as measured over a 15-minute period.

53.

Your employer has purchased a tract of land for $220,000. What would be the value of this land in 10 years, assuming an APR of 11%?

Use the formula F = P(1 + i)n, where F = future value of the money, P = present value of the money (principal), i = interest rate (annual percentage rate [APR]), and n = number of years (in this case, number of years invested).

  • $624,800

  • $275,900

  • $458,100

  • $832,600

Correct answer: $624,800

Calculate the future value of money using the known variables:

F = P(1 + i)n

F = $220,000(1 + 0.11)10

F = $220,000(1.11)10

Note that (1.11)10 = 2.8394 = 2.84

F = $220,000(2.84)

F = $624,800

54.

What is the maximum allowable container size for Class III combustible liquids in a metal drum? 

  • 60 gallons

  • 5 gallons

  • 660 gallons

  • 2 gallons

Correct answer: 60 gallons

The maximum allowable container size for Class III combustible liquids in a metal drum is 60 gallons. It is the same allowable container size for Class II combustible liquid in a metal drum. 

55.

THERP is a quantitative method for predicting what?

  • Human error

  • Thermal failure

  • Plastic deformation

  • Time spent having equipment repaired

Correct answer: Human error

THERP, or the Technique for Human Error-Rate Prediction, is a quantitative method for estimating the probability of human error during a specific process or series of steps taken by an operator. THERP was one of the first total approach tools used in the field of human reliability assessment (HRA) for nuclear power plants.

56.

Which of the following is NOT a negative effect of glare?

  • Accidents due to low light and inability to see clearly

  • Errors in perception and detection that result in accidents

  • Production of afterimages

  • Delay in visibility due to a need for adaptation

Correct answer: Accidents due to low light and inability to see clearly

Lighting or lack of lighting can lead to accidents or injuries. Some aspects of lighting can create distractions or interfere with tasks. 

Glare is a qualitative aspect of lighting and is the presence of bright light in the visual field. Glare can lead to errors in perception and detection that result in accidents. It may produce afterimages or delay visibility due to the need for the eyes to adjust. The presence of bright light can be distracting and can even injure the receptor cells in the eyes.

57.

Who typically cannot issue a hot work permit?

  • General Manager

  • Safety Engineer

  • Maintenance Manager

  • Fire Marshal

Correct answer: General Manager

A safety engineer, maintenance manager, and fire marshal can issue a hot work permit in light of their competence in hot work. Although a general manager is responsible overall for the facility, they typically cannot issue a hot work permit due to a lack of competence (see OSHA 1915.7 - Competent person). 

58.

A Reynolds number with a value of 1500 denotes what type of flow?

  • Laminar flow

  • Turbulent flow

  • Cannot be determined

  • Computational flow

Correct answer: Laminar flow

The Reynolds number is a dimensionless number that is used to determine flow conditions in a pipe or along flat surfaces.  It is calculated by multiplying the density of the fluid or air, the diameter of the duct or pipe or area of a surface, and the velocity of the fluid or air movement, and then dividing by the viscosity of the fluid or density of the air. Reynolds numbers below 2000 typically indicate a laminar or non-turbulent flow. Reynolds numbers between 2000 and 4000 indicate a changing or transitional flow, and Reynolds numbers greater than 4000 suggest a turbulent flow. 

Turbulence is a measure of how much a fluid mixes as it flows.

59.

What is emitted during alpha decay of radiation?

  • A helium nuclide

  • A helium atom

  • Positrons

  • High-energy electron

Correct answer: A helium nuclide

As part of a natural process, radioactive materials spontaneously emit various combinations of ionizing particles and gamma or x-rays of ionizing radiation to become more stable.

In alpha decay, the atomic mass is reduced by four, and the protons are reduced by two. During alpha decay, a separate helium nuclide is produced that has an atomic mass of four and two protons, leaving a +2 charge.

60.

Fit for duty is part of what site program?

  • Ergonomics

  • Fall protection

  • Respiratory protection

  • Machine guarding

Correct answer: Ergonomics

Fit for duty is part of a site's ergonomic program. It is common to confuse the fit-for-duty test with fit testing for a respiratory protection program. The fit test is to ensure a proper seal on a respirator in order to protect the user from breathing in toxins. Fall protection and machine guarding do not involve fit-for-duty testing. 

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