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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

BCSP CSP Exam Questions

Page 5 of 50

81.

What is the main goal of Management By Objectives (MBO)?

  • Create goals using input from both management and employees

  • Explain motivation using hygiene and motivation factors

  • Increase employees' esteem and self-actualization

  • Characterize employees as being motivated by money and safety

Correct answer: Create goals using input from both management and employees

MBO was a term first used by Peter Drucker in 1954 to describe the process of agreeing upon objectives within an organization. The main focus of MBO is to improve performance by setting established goals for the organization agreed on by both management and employees. Doing this encourages employee commitment and participation and has a direct impact on the success of the organization.

Herzberg's motivational theory attempts to explain motivation using hygiene and motivation factors, which are unrelated to the goal-setting process emphasized in MBO. While MBO can indirectly contribute to increasing employees' esteem and self-actualization, its primary focus is collaborative goal-setting. Douglas McGregor's Theory X characterizes employees as being motivated by money and safety. MBO focuses on engaging employees in the goal-setting process rather than characterizing their motivations.

82.

An object of 2 kg is traveling at 76m/s. Calculate the kinetic energy in Joules.

  • 5.776 x 103 J

  • 3.801 x 103 J

  • 7.602 x 108 J

  • 1.3432 x 106 J

Correct answer: 5.776 x 103 J

The equation for Kinetic Energy:

 KE = 1/2(mv2)

Where:

KE = kinetic energy (N) 

m = mass of the object (2kg)

v = speed of the object (velocity) (76m/s)

Solve for KE:

KE = (0.5)(2)(762)

KE = 5776 kg x m2/s2

KE = 5,776 J

KE = 5.776 x 103 J

The other answer options are incorrect and are likely from an error or miscalculation in your equation. 

83.

Which statement BEST describes human performance analysis?

  • Humans are essentially fallible, and organizations must systematically implement controls to improve individual and organizational performance

  • Smarter organizations come from better, more focused employee training and development

  • Worker carelessness is a cause of most accidents, and investigations should evaluate these causes first

  • The root causes of errors typically come from training, education, motivation, or task design flaws

Correct answer: Humans are essentially fallible, and organizations must systematically implement controls to improve individual and organizational performance

Human performance analysis is a model that looks beyond human errors and targets what decisions and actions took place to allow the errors. Then, it looks at the causes at a system level, such as poor task design, inadequate supervision, or organizational beliefs that allowed those decisions and actions to occur.

Human performance analysis is a model used in high-reliability organizations such as the nuclear and power industries and is promoted by the Department of Energy.

84.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a Safety and Health Management System?

  • NFPA 704

  • ISO 45001

  • ANSI/ASSP Z10

  • OSHA VPP

Correct answer: NFPA 704

NFPA stands for National Fire Protection Association, and it is a standard development organization. NFPA 704 is the standard used for the identification of hazardous materials to aid in an emergency response. NFPA has created a pictorial standard—the NFPA diamond—so that emergency responders understand the health, flammability, instability, and special hazards of materials involved in an emergency.

ISO 45001 is an occupational health and safety management system that focuses more on risk management than hazard management, so it operates at a higher level than other systems.

The ANSI/ASSP Z10 standard is a US-based consensus standard for occupational health and safety.

The OSHA Voluntary Protection Program is a health and safety management program to support businesses in going beyond health and safety compliance.

85.

Which is defined as the rate of flow of electric charge?

  • Current

  • Voltage

  • Resistance

  • Power

Correct answer: Current

Current is the flow of electrical charge or the rate of flow of electric charge and with a unit of amperes (A).

Voltage is the energy (electric) potential between two points in volts (V). Resistance is a measure of the opposition to current flow in an electrical current measured in ohms (Ω). Power is the rate at which electrical energy is transferred by a circuit in watts (W).

86.

Determine the frictional force that results from an object having a coefficient of friction of 0.4 and force of 300N.

  • 120N

  • 210N

  • 60N

  • 80N

Correct answer: 120N

Frictional force resists motion when the surface of one object comes in contact with the surface of another. All objects on Earth have some type of frictional force. 

The equation to determine the frictional force is: F = μN

Where:

Ffric = frictional force (which is parallel to the surface) 

μ = coefficient of friction 

N = force acting on the surface in a direction that is perpendicular to the surface 

Solve:

Ffric = (.4) (300)

Ffric = 120N

87.

What does 40 CFR Part 262 establish related to record keeping requirements?

  • Standards for Generators of Hazardous Waste

  • Universal Waste

  • Land Disposal Restrictions

  • Tanks and Containers

Correct answer: Standards for Generators of Hazardous Waste

This regulation (40 CFR Part 262) establishes the responsibilities of hazardous waste generators, including obtaining an identification number, preparing a manifest, ensuring proper packaging and labeling, meeting standards for waste accumulation units, and record-keeping and reporting requirements.

88.

According to the NFPA, which of the following is NOT a class of fire?

  • E

  • C

  • D

  • K

Correct answer: E

The NFPA classifies fires according to fuel type:

  • Class A: ordinary common combustibles such as wood, paper, cloth, and trash
  • Class B: flammable liquids, gases, solvents, oils, gasoline, paints, alcohols, etc.
  • Class C: energized electrical equipment
  • Class D: combustible metals such as magnesium and sodium
  • Class K: cooking utensils involving combustible cooking media (e.g., vegetable or animal oils/fats)

Class E is not a class of fire according to NFPA. 

89.

What is the volume of 2.6 gram-moles (g-mol) of gas at an absolute pressure of 33.2 psi and a temperature of 51°C?

Use the formula PV = nRT

  • 30.6 L

  • 14.4L

  • 17.04 L

  • 34.8 L

Correct answer: 30.6 L

Use the formula PV = nRT.

Where:

n = 2.6 mol

P = 33.2 psi

T = (51 + 273) = 324 °K

Rg is the Universal gas constant; it is defined as:

Rg = 8.314 J / mol × K

Convert the units for this problem:

Rg = 1.206 L × psi / mol × K

Plugging everything in:

Vol = n × Rg Ã— Temp / P

Vol = (2.6 mol) × (1.206 L x psi / mol × K) (324 K) / 33.2 psi

The units will cancel (psi, mol, K), leaving only liters (L):

Vol = 2.6 × 1.206 L x 324 / 33.2

Vol = 30.6004 L

Vol = 30.6 L

The other answer options are incorrect and are likely from an error or miscalculation in your equation. 

90.

Marshall v. Barlow was a decision of the US Supreme Court that was a major loss for OSHA. What was the MAIN legal issue of the case?

  • Right of entry

  • Right to enforce

  • Right to abate

  • Right to stop work

Correct answer: Right of entry

Marshall v. Barlow was a case from Idaho that eventually made its way to the Supreme Court. The court ultimately ruled in favor of Barlow, stating that OSHA could not inspect the non-public areas of a company without permission or a warrant, as this would violate the Fourth Amendment. OSHA does not have a warrantless right of entry.

OSHA, in most jurisdictions, is able to fast-track requests for warrants and can usually get them quickly.

91.

What is the PRIMARY benefit of conducting the risk assessment process? 

  • Decisions are made in a consistent manner

  • It transfers all the risk to the insurance company

  • Removes all risks from the process

  • Reduces company liability for errors and omissions

Correct answer: Decisions are made in a consistent manner 

Other advantages of using the risk assessment process include: decisions are based on reducing the risk to personnel and the environment, the data that's collected is focused on only information needed to make risk-related decisions, the resources used are focused on the elements with the highest risk to people and the environment, compliance or risk mitigation effectiveness can be evaluated relative to site-specific standards or goals, and it encourages cost-effective risk mitigation rapidly.  

92.

When preparing objectives for training, it's important that they are clear, concise, measurable and what else? 

  • Shared with the students 

  • On the last slide

  • Part of a checklist

  • Fact vs. principle based

Correct answer: Shared with the students 

Objectives need to be well thought out and planned in order for the training to be successful. In addition, objectives should be clear, concise, measurable, and shared with the employees prior to the training. 

93.

You work for a large company that has 85 locations around the world. The mean weight of extremely hazardous chemicals used annually at all the sites is 44 pounds. You calculated the standard deviation of this weight between all the sites and found it to be five pounds. What is the margin of error of this data using a confidence interval of 95%?

  • ± 1.1 pounds

  • ± .91 pounds

  • ± 14 pounds

  • ± .88 pounds

Correct answer: ± 1.1 pounds

The confidence interval is the measure of uncertainty there is with a statistic. Confidence intervals are typically stated as a margin of error. The margin of error tells you how confident you would be if you measured the entire population or data set. A confidence interval is the range of values where we are fairly certain our true value lies.

The equation for calculating the confidence interval is:  xÌ…  ±  Z(s/√n)

Where:

xÌ… = the mean (44 pounds)

z = the chosen Z-value from the table below (a 95% confidence interval has a Z score of 1.960)

s = the standard deviation (5 pounds)

n = is the number of observations (85)

The xÌ… bar symbol is used in statistics to represent the sample mean of a distribution.

Table of Z-Scores for Commonly Used Confidence Intervals (can be found by searching for "Confidence Intervals" online).

Confidence
Interval		Z Score
80%1.282
85%1.440
90%1.645
95%1.960
99%2.576
99.5%2.807
99.9%3.291

Substitute and solve using the equation:  xÌ…  ±  Z(s/√n)

= 44 ± (1.960)(5/√85)

= 44 ± (1.960) (5/9.22)

= 44 ± (1.960) (.54)

= 44 pounds ± 1.1 pounds

This means that there is a 95% level of confidence that the weight of extremely hazardous chemicals used at each site will be between 42.9 and 45.1 pounds each year. The margin of error is ± 1.1 pounds.

94.

How long is an employer required to keep medical records for employees with occupational exposure? 

  • For the duration of employment plus 30 years

  • For 20 years

  • For the duration of employment plus 20 years

  • For 30 years

Correct answer: For the duration of employment plus 30 years

The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record for each employee with occupational exposure. This record shall include the name and social security number of the employee, a copy of the employee’s hepatitis B vaccination status, a copy of all results of examinations, medical testing, and follow-up procedures, the employer’s copy of the health care professional’s written opinion, and a copy of the information provided to the health care professional. The employer shall ensure confidentiality, not allowing the record to be disclosed or reported without the employee’s written consent. 

95.

Which of the following investigation methods uses a timeline chart to display the sequence of events that contributed to or directly caused an accident?

  • MES

  • GHA

  • FMEA

  • Fault tree analysis

Correct answer: MES

The multi-linear event sequencing (MES) method uses a timeline to display the sequence of events to explain what happened and why. Countermeasures can be designed by evaluating individual events to see where changes can be introduced to alter the process. MES can also be used proactively to prevent accidents. 

A gross hazard analysis (GHA) is performed to get a rough assessment of the risks involved in performing a task.

A failure modes and effects analysis (FMEA) determines where failures occurred by creating a table that lists how each item in an accident can fail and determines the effects of each failure, the effects of other items on overall task performance, evaluations about the risks associated with each failure, and actions and recommendations.

A fault tree analysis is a logic diagram that uses a graphic model of the pathways within a system that can lead to a foreseeable, undesirable loss event.

96.

What serves as the basis for curriculum development?

  • Course outline

  • Training delivery method

  • Instructor-led training

  • Evaluation

Correct answer: Course outline

Once training performance objectives have been established, a course outline is created to serve as the basis for developing the curriculum. Items generally included in the course outline are:

  • a general course description (what will and won't be covered in the course, the teaching method, prerequisites, goals, and objectives)
  • a list of the goals and objectives for successful completion of the course (using the performance objectives)
  • an outline of the course structure (how the course will function via modules, hands-on, laboratory, and the time required to complete the training)
  • course requirements, including evaluation criteria

Performance objectives are developed before the course outline. The training delivery method follows the development of the performance objectives and course outline.

Some training is instructor-led, but some training is self-paced or on-the-job. Evaluations are important for determining the success or failure of a training program but are not the basis of curriculum development.

97.

When preparing the summary of job activities for your CSP application, you describe the top three job functions related to your work experience. What MUST these job activities show?  

  • How each activity prevented harm by protecting people, property, or the environment

  • How each activity was related to the safety and health field

  • How each activity prevented OSHA violations

  • How each activity prevented OSHA recordable injuries

Correct answer: How each activity prevented harm by protecting people, property, or the environment

When submitting your application to qualify to take the CSP (Certified Safety Professional) examination, you must list a summary of job activities that describes the top three job functions you performed in that job, how they were executed at the professional level, and how these activities prevented harm by protecting people, property, or the environment. 

98.

What is the US national standard for Business Continuity, Emergency, and Crisis Management?

  • NFPA 1600

  • 1910.38

  • 1910.37

  • 1910.120

Correct answer: NFPA 1600

The scope of the NFPA 1600 standard establishes a common set of criteria for all hazards disaster/emergency management and business continuity programs. The Emergency Management and Business Continuity community comprises many different entities, including the government at distinct levels (e.g., federal, state/provincial, territorial, tribal, indigenous, and local levels); commercial business and industry; not-for-profit and nongovernmental organizations; and individual citizens. Each of these entities has its own focus, unique mission and responsibilities, varied resources and capabilities, and operating principles and procedures.

The OSHA 1910.38 is the standard for emergency action plans. The OSHA 1910.37 is the standard for maintenance, safeguards, and operational features for exit routes. The 1910.120 is the standard for hazardous waste operations and emergency response.

99.

According to OSHA regulations (29 CFR 1926) for construction, activities have different trigger heights for fall protection requirements. What is the trigger height for fall protection in Subpart X for portable ladders?

  • No requirement for fall protection

  • 10 feet

  • 6 feet

  • 24 feet

Correct answer: No requirement for fall protection

According to 29 CFR 1926.1053 (Subpart X), there is no requirement for fall protection when working on portable ladders. 

For workers on fixed ladders with a length of climb greater than 24 feet, the ladder must be equipped with one of the following:

  • ladder safety device
  • retracting lifeline
  • cage or well (with specific requirements)
  • rest platform (in specific circumstances)

100.

You are setting an 8-foot ladder against a wall to do work. How far should the base of the ladder be from the wall?

  • 2 feet

  • 3 feet

  • 4 feet

  • 1 foot

Correct answer: 2 feet

Place the ladder's base a quarter of the working length of the ladder from the wall. Since the ladder is 8 feet tall (working length):

8 feet * (1/4) = 2 feet

Therefore, the base of the ladder should be placed 2 feet from the wall.

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