CCI CNAMB Exam Questions

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121.

What is a typical awake heart rate range for a healthy preschool-age child (3–5 years)? 

  • 80–120 beats per minute

  • 120–140 beats per minute

  • 100–120 beats per minute

  • 60–100 beats per minute

Correct answer: 80–120 beats per minute

A typical preschool-age child has an awake heart rate of 80–120, an asleep heart rate of 65–100, respirations of 20–28, and a systolic blood pressure range of 89–112. 

122.

According to the National Fire Protection Association 10 (NFP 10), which type of fire extinguisher is recommended for use in the operating room? 

  • Carbon dioxide fire extinguishers

  • Wet chemical fire extinguishers

  • Dry powder fire extinguishers

  • ABC fire extinguishers

Correct answer: Carbon dioxide fire extinguishers

The NFPA 10 recommends either water mist or carbon dioxide fire extinguishers for use in ORs. CO2 extinguishers are rated for all 3 classes of fires and are preferred. 

123.

A 38-year-old female patient is undergoing a laparoscopic left oophorectomy and cyst removal. Immediately after insufflation of the abdomen with CO2 begins, her vital signs deteriorate rapidly and her end-tidal CO2 decreases. What should the nurse prepare to do at the surgeon's and anesthesia provider's direction? 

  • Shut off the insufflation and assist in tilting the patient to their left side, then hyperventilate with 100% oxygen

  • Shut off the insufflator, grab the crash cart, hold cricoid pressure, then give a breathing treatment

  • Turn down the pressure of the insufflation, and give dantrolene and calcium chloride

  • Turn off the gas, grab a tracheostomy tray, then hyperventilate with 100% oxygen

Correct answer: Shut off the insufflation and assist in tilting the patient to their left side, then hyperventilate with 100% oxygen

The symptoms shown here are the results of a possible gas embolism caused by insufflation. Gas emboli are very rare, but should always be considered when vital signs collapse immediately after insufflation. Treatment includes shutting off insufflation immediately, tiling the patient to the left, and hyperventilating with 100% oxygen. The anesthesiologist may also perform Durant's procedure by passing a right CVP catheter and aspirating blood from the right atrium of the heart to treat this condition. 

124.

A registered nurse should have, at minimum, which of the following certifications in order to give and monitor a patient receiving moderate sedation/conscious sedation?  

  • Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS)

  • Certified Operating Room Nurse (CNOR)

  • Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist (CRNA)

  • Certified Care Registered Nurse (CCRN)

Correct answer: Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS)

At minimum, the nurse giving conscious sedation should be ACLS certified. Registered nurses are allowed to give conscious sedation and it does not have to be done by a CRNA. CCRN and CNOR nurses will already be ACLS certified in most facilities, but neither is a requirement for conscious sedation. 

125.

All of these are disadvantages of hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilization except which one? 

  • Aeration is necessary

  • You can't use metal trays

  • Hydrogen peroxide and cellulose are incompatible 

  • Hydrogen peroxide sterilization cannot be used on flexible endoscopes with lumens in the United States

Correct Answer: Aeration is necessary

Items sterilized by hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilization do not require aeration. That is necessary with EO sterilizers. The other three answers are all disadvantages. Metal trays block radiofrequency waves, so they are contraindicated by this type of sterilization. Hydrogen peroxide and cellulose are incompatible, so you cannot use cotton fiber woven textiles or paper products. Finally, the US has not approved this method for use on flexible endoscopes. 

126.

A patient is scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy with intraoperative cholangiograms. All of these are things the nurse needs to do to ready the OR, except which one? 

  • Have a flexible endoscope in the room and ready 

  • Notify radiology to bring a c-arm

  • Have contrast dye available in the room 

  • Turn the OR table to have x-ray access under the abdomen 

Correct answer: Have a flexible endoscope in the room and ready 

You would not need a flexible endoscope for intraoperative cholangiograms. Contrast dye and x-ray considerations are most important for cholangiograms. Also, assess for allergies or sensitivities to contrast dye in pre-op before taking the patient back to the OR. Patients' reproductive organs may be covered with a lead skirt if it will not interfere with the surgeon's visualization of the common bile duct and related structures. 

127.

A 9-year-old female patient is waking up from general anesthesia after a myringoplasty and fat graft. She begins to cough and wheeze. The wheezing progresses to stridor and her oxygen saturation starts to drop rapidly. What is the first thing the nurse would assist the anesthesia provider with? 

  • Suctioning the airway

  • Give a duoneb via nebulizer

  • Give succinylcholine and reintubate as quickly as possible

  • Give propofol IV and supplemental oxygen with positive pressure

Correct answer: Suctioning the airway

In laryngospasm, the first thing to try is suctioning to remove the secretions that are aggravating the larynx and causing it to spasm. Then oxygen with positive pressure and IV meds for relaxation and reintubation if needed. 

128.

Each instrument set should be labeled, at minimum, with the following items:

  • Name of the set, date sterilized, and the batch lot number

  • Name of the set, how many instruments it has, and what time it was wrapped 

  • Name of the set, who wrapped it, and what type of metal the instruments are

  • Name of the set, expiration date, and the batch lot number 

Correct answer: Name of the set, date sterilized, and the batch lot number

These three things allow for ease in finding the set and for tracking its sterility. 

129.

A patient is being assessed preoperatively for an endoscopic carpal tunnel release. The patient also has AV graft dialysis access on the operative arm. What will this affect in surgery? 

  • A tourniquet will not be able to be used

  • The blood pressure cuff will have to be placed on a leg

  • The surgeon won't be able to use local anesthesia

  • The surgeon won't be able to do the surgery endoscopically

Correct answer: A tourniquet will not be able to be used

Tourniquets cannot be placed over dialysis access sites. They should also be used with caution in older adults, anyone with a low hemoglobin, anyone at increased risk for VTE, anyone with a high BMI, diabetic neuropathy, peripeheral vascular disease, sickle cell anemia, severe infection, malignancy, open fractures, severe crushing injuries, and on thighs with a circumference bigger than 100 cm. The blood pressure cuff can be placed on the non-operative arm and does not necessarily have to be placed on the leg. 

130.

When is the best time to apply sequential compression devices? 

  • In the pre-op holding area

  • Right before anesthesia is induced

  • In the PACU

  • After prepping the patient

Correct answer: In the pre-op holding area

The risk for DVT/VTEs starts with preoperative immobility. It is best practice to apply SCDs preoperatively and to continue their use throughout surgery and the PACU, and beyond if the patient will be immobile for an extended period of time. Risk factors include age over 40, malignancy, obesity, hypercoagulability, previous history of embolism/clotting, immobility, varicosities, presence of central lines, trauma, spinal cord injury/paralysis, estrogen therapy, dehydration, heart disease, metabolic diseases, respiratory diseases, smoking, sepsis, inflammatory conditions, pregnancy, steroid use, recent surgery, blood transfusion, Non-O blood types, obstructive sleep apnea, and patients who have had splenectomies. 

131.

There are 5 instances where surgical counts should always be done or reconciled. Which of these includes every instance? 

  • Prior to the procedure, when new items are opened to the sterile field, when the first layer of closure begins and each cavity closure, before permanent relief of either the scrub or circulator, and when the instrument sets are put back together before sterilization

  • Right after the first incision, when the first body cavity is closed, at the end of the procedure, while the back table is being cleared before the trash is taken out, and when instrument sets are put back together before sterilization

  • Prior to the procedure, when new items are added to the sterile field, at the end of the procedure, when clearing the back table and readying instruments for decontamination, and before the scrub or circulator is permanently relieved

  • Prior to the procedure, when the first layer of closure begins, after each cavity closure, whenever more laps are opened to the sterile field, and at the end of the procedure 

Correct answer: Prior to the procedure, when new items are opened to the sterile field, when the first layer of closure begins and each cavity closure, before permanent relief of either the scrub or circulator, and when the instrument sets are put back together before sterilization.

Counts should also be done any time any member of the surgical team asks for one for clarification or notices a discrepancy. Closure should be stopped if there is any discrepancy and a search conducted for missing items. If they cannot be found, an x-ray must be ordered. Counts must be documented as incorrect with any actions taken if the item cannot be found. If a surgical item is retained, it is a sentinel event that must be reported to The Joint Commission. The surgeon should announce clearly whenever they place a counted item or instrument into a body cavity to help with count clarity and decreasing instances of RSIs. Items should always be counted out loud and viewed by 2 people (one must be the circulator). The circulating nurse informs the surgeon if the counts are correct or incorrect. All items that can be taken apart must be counted separately. All pieces of broken items must be accounted for. Preprinted sheets for counting should be used for specific instrument sets. 

132.

A 50-year-old male patient being discharged the same day after a total joint surgery would benefit from a referral to what service? 

  • Physical therapy

  • A nursing home

  • A pulmonary specialist

  • Licensed clinical social worker

Correct answer: Physical therapy

One of the Joint Commission's requirements for facilities is providing consistent patient and family education. When patients are discharged, they should be given any and all resources that will assist them in successful healing and help them make decisions about their care. A referral to a home health agency, physical therapist, occupational therapist, meal service, etc. may be warranted. If an ambulatory surgical center is attached to a hospital, some of these types of specialty providers may even be able to do an evaluation prior to discharge. This type of interdisciplinary discharge teaching and planning contributes to the continuity of care and patient safety and satisfaction.

133.

Observational Teamwork Assessment for Surgery (OATS) is a tool for studying non-technical skills in the perioperative setting. These non-technical skills affect team communications and have been extensively studied in aviation and implemented in pilot training. Which of these are non-technical skills that have been observed to increase team communication in the OR? 

  • Situational awareness and decision making

  • Civility and compassion

  • Safety and emergency situation training

  • Assertiveness and directness

Correct answer: Situational awareness and decision making

Situational awareness, decision making, leadership, communication, and teamwork are all non-technical skills that can enhance team communication and should be implemented in OR staff training. 

134.

Before passing off a sterile supply to the scrub person, all of these should be checked except which one? 

  • The manufacture date

  • Package integrity

  • The correct size and type of item

  • The expiration date

Correct answer: The manufacture date

It is unnecessary to check the manufacture date if the expiration date is available and checked. Package integrity, the expiration date, product integrity (discoloration, settling), the correctness of the product for the procedure, and the sterilization chemical indicators (if applicable) should all be checked prior to adding them to a sterile field. 

135.

A 35-year-old patient is undergoing a left temporal artery biopsy. What should be done to decrease fire risk? 

  • Place a water soluble lubricant in the patient's hair near the surgical site

  • Use chloraprep to prep the surgical site

  • Tent the drapes around the patient's airway to keep oxygen under the drapes and away from the sterile field

  • Place the grounding pad far away from the surgical site to draw the current away from the airway 

Correct answer: Place a water soluble lubricant in the patient's hair near the surgical site

Water-based lubricant decreases the flammability of hair even in the presence of prep solutions. Hair should be left in place whenever possible. Surgical site infection data shows that fewer SSIs occur when hair is left alone versus clipped or shaved off. 

136.

Endotrachial tubes for children less than 8-years-old are usually uncuffed. Why is this? 

  • Because pediatric patients' larynxes sit higher than adults' and soft tissue at the level of the cricoid cartilage forms a loose seal; cuffs can cause damage and edema in this soft tissue

  • Because the amount of inhalation anesthetics used for children is not high enough to worry about waste anesthesia gases and it decreases trauma to the tissues of the larynx

  • Because of the risk of dislocation of the tube into the esophagus

  • Because pediatric airways are so small, a cuff could occlude the esophagus and erode into the thryoid

Correct answer: Because pediatric patients' larynxes sit higher than adults' and soft tissue at the level of the cricoid cartilage forms a loose seal; cuffs can cause damage and edema in this soft tissue

Adult larynxes' smallest point is at the vocal cords. In pediatric larynxes, the narrowest point is below the vocal cords at the cricoid cartilage. Cuffs can cause inflammation and edema which will narrow the airway after surgery and can cause post-extubation croup or obstruction. Newly designed ET tubes have microcuffs that can be used for patients under 8 years of age. 

137.

Glycopyrrolate is used to help with the side effects of which other medication? 

  • Physostigmine

  • Morphine

  • Ketamine

  • Precedex

Correct answer: Physostigmine

Physostigmine (Antilirium) is an anticholinesterase that inhibits acetylcholinesterase and reverses the CNS side effects of benzodiazepines, scopolamine, and ketamine. It also reverses the somnolence and disorientation associated with phenothiazines, tricyclic antidepressants, antiparkinsonian drugs, promethazine, droperidol, and belladonna alkaloids. However, it can also cause nausea, vomiting, salivation, bradycardia, bronchospasm, and seizures. Because of all the possible side effects, it is rarely used for benzodiazepine reversal and flumazenil is used instead. However, Glycopyrrolate can be given to counteract the nausea, pallor, sweating and bradycardia that physostigmine produces, so it can be used to reverse the other medications. Patients who have been given physostigmine should remain in the PACU for at least an hour afterwards for monitoring.

Dexmedetomidine (Precedex) is a newer medication with analgesic properties that can control stress and anxiety, and it does not depress the respiratory system. It is an alpha 2 agonist. It is used to decrease inhalation anesthetic and opioid use and can mitigate the cardiostimulatory and emergence delirium associated with ketamine. Morphine is reversed by naloxone and does not typically need side effect management.  

138.

Using the best available and most current scientific research and implementing it into an evolving nursing practice is known as what? 

  • Evidence-based practice

  • Fact-based practice

  • Ethically sourced nursing practice

  • Root-cause practice

Correct answer: Evidence-based practice

Evidence-Based Practice (EBP) is a process by which current evidence and research is implemented into patient care. Perioperative nurses have a professional obligation to stay current in their field and make changes to their practice based on new evidence. The Surgical Care Improvement Project (SCIP) is an example of Evidence-Based Practice. 

139.

Temperatures in the OR are recommended to be maintained within which range? 

  • 68°F–75°F

  • 60°F–75°F

  • 70°F–79°F

  • 58°F–73°F

Correct answer: 68°F–75°F

68°F–75°F or 20–24° C is the optimal temperature for ORs in order to decrease bacterial growth, decrease sweating among gowned and gloved staff, and to correlate with proper humidity levels. The temperature can and should be turned up for pediatric cases or in cases where hypothermia is a huge risk.

  • Alexander's Care of the Patient in Surgery 17th Edition recommends 68°F–73°F.
  • Berry & Kohn's Operating Room Technique 14th Edition recommends 68°F–75°F.
  • 2023 Guidelines for Perioperative Practice recommend having temperature guidelines in place depending on the HVAC system in use; using evidence-based practice when determining the proper range for that specific facility.

140.

Near the end of a hysteroscopy and uterine polyp removal, the circulating nurse is comparing the amount of saline used with the amount in the suction container. They find that there is a discrepancy and 1600 milliliters of fluid are unaccounted for in the container. What should the nurse do? 

  • Notify the surgeon as the uterus may be perforated

  • Nothing, it is probably on the floor or in the drapes 

  • Turn the suction up to return more of the fluid from the uterus 

  • Notify the anesthesia provider as they may want to insert a nasogastric tube 

Correct answer: Notify the surgeon. The uterus may be perforated.

Any discrepancy in inflow or outflow over 1500 ml in a hysteroscopy must be reported to the surgeon so the fluid can be accounted for. If the uterus is perforated, then fluid may enter the peritoneal cavity and cause problems with hypervolemia.