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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

Cisco CCNA Exam Questions

Page 6 of 25

101.

Which three sentences correctly describe traditional WANs as opposed to SD-WANs? (Choose three.)

  • Network configurations are stored on individual routers and switches

  • Security is typically controlled by ACLs and IP blocklists on routers

  • Device-by-device configurations

  • Place emphasis on low-cost, high speed connectivity

  • Not restricted based on limitations of underlying hardware

A traditional WAN primarily uses dedicated hardware to accomplish networking tasks, whereas software-defined WANs (SD-WANs) are a programmatic approach to connecting networks over a large geographical distance. With traditional WANs, network configurations are stored on individual routers. Security is typically controlled by ACLs and IP blocklists on routers. There are device-by-device configurations.

SD-WANs emphasize low-cost connections. SD-WANs are not restricted by individual underlying hardware.

102.

An administrator runs the "show ip route" command and sees a line with "R 192.168.12.0/16 [120/4] via 10.1.1.2, 00:00:05, GigabitEthernet0/0/1" in the output. For this route, how many bits is the subnet mask?

  • 16

  • 5

  • 120

  • 4

  • 32

Correct answer: 16

The prefix length of /16 is the subnet mask and represents how many bits from the left is the network part. It is used to pick the most specific route to a network.

103.

What happens when a DR fails?

  • The BDR becomes the new DR.

  • A new DR is elected.

  • Routers switch to point-to-point links.

  • Routers cannot send HELLO packets.

  • Routers send packets to the gateway of last resort.

A designated router (DR) acts as a central point for sharing OSPF information. If the DR fails, then the BDR becomes the new DR.

A new BDR is elected when the DR fails. Only interfaces that connect two systems use point-to-point links. HELLO packets are used to allow OSPF discovery. A gateway of last resort is used when a packet is destined for an address that is not specified in a router's routing table.

104.

What are two valid values for AD in a routing table? (Choose two.)

  • 0

  • 110

  • /24

  • 10.0.0.0

  • 512

The administrative distance (AD) is used to choose between multiple correct paths using different routing protocols. A value of 0 is used for connected routes and 110 is the default AD for OSPF is 110. The value /24 is a prefix length. The value 10.0.0.0 is a classful network. The value 512 is too high for an AD.

105.

Which two port states are bypassed when using PortFast? (Choose two.)

  • Listening

  • Learning

  • Blocking

  • Forwarding

PortFast helps end-user devices quickly start using a switch because they do not have to wait for ports to move to an STP forwarding state. The port will immediately transition from blocking to forwarding without going through the listening and learning states.

106.

Which two statements are true about DR/BDR. (Choose two.)

  • ODPF does not elect DR/BDR roles with point-to-point links

  • The DR makes sure that all routers on the same subnet have the same copies of each LSA

  • The DR and BDR are elected based on the lowest router ID

  • The DR splits the load between itself and the BDR

The designated router (DR) and backup designated router (BDR) are used to make OSFP more efficient. OSPF does not elect DR/BDR roles on point-to-point links. The DR is responsible for sending each LSA to the other routers. 

The DR and BDR are elected based on priority or highest router ID. The BDR takes over only if the DR goes offline.

107.

Which three sentences correctly describe static host routes in both IPv4 and IPv6? (Choose three.)

  • A mask of /128 identifies a host route in IPv6

  • A static IPv6 host route can use a link-local address as the next-hop address

  • A host route is a route to a single host address

  • A mask of 0.0.0.0 is used for static host routes in IPv4

  • An IPv6 static host route can be verified with the "ip route" command

A static host route is a route that goes to a single host address. A mask of /128 identifies a host route in IPv6. A static IPv6 host route can use a link-local address as the next-hop address.

A mask of 255.255.255.255 is used for static host routes in IPv4. An IPv4 static host route can be verified with the "show ip route" command.

108.

An administrator runs the "show ip ospf interface brief command" and the Nbrs F/C column displays 3/4. How many neighbors are not in the full adjacency state for the interface?

  • 1

  • 3

  • 4

  • 7

Correct answer: 1

The output shows that three out of four neighbors are fully adjacent. Therefore, one is in a two-way state.

109.

A router has interface G0/1/0 with an address of 10.1.14.1/24 and interface G0/2/0 with an address of 10.1.15.1/24. Which command will enable OSPF on both interfaces?

  • network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0

  • network 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0

  • network 10.1.14.1 0.0.0.255 area 0

  • network 10.1.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0

Correct answer: network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0

The "network" command lets the router match which interfaces should use OSPF. The first argument is the IP address and the second argument is a wildcard mask that allows for specifying which octets of the address must match.

110.

Which subfield in the tag field of an 802.1Q frame is used to specify the VLAN the frame belongs to?

  • VID

  • PRI

  • CFI

  • TPID

Correct answer: VID

The VLAN Identifier (VID) is a 12-bit field that specifies which VLAN the frame belongs to.

The Priority Field (PRI) is used to give the frame a priority value. The Canonical Format Indicator (CFI) is used to specify if the MAC address is in canonical form. The Tag Protocol Identifier (TPID) is used to identify the frame as 802.1Q.

111.

Which three of the following are considered IGPs? (Choose three.)

  • EIGRP

  • OSPF

  • RIP

  • BGP

Routing protocols are broadly divided into two categories: interior gateway protocols (IGPs) and exterior gateway protocols (EGPs). The IGPs are for use in a single autonomous system (AS), and there are a wide variety of them, such as EIGRP, OSPF, RIP, and IS-IS. EGPs are used between autonomous systems, such as connecting different ISPs, and the main protocol for that is BGP.

112.

Which of the following steps happens first in the IPsec encryption process?

  • The sending device encrypts the data using the session key.

  • The sending device encapsulates the encrypted data into a packet with a new header.

  • The receiving device sends the packet to the receiving destination.

  • The receiving device decrypts the message with the session key.

Correct answer: The sending device encrypts the data using the session key.

IPsec is used to create encrypted tunnels. The sending device has to first encrypt the data with the session key.

After encrypting the data, the sending device encapsulates the encrypted data into a packet with a new header. After encapsulating the encrypted data, the device sends it. After receiving the data, the receiving device decrypts it with the session key.

113.

What are four features of routing protocols supported by Cisco IOS software? (Choose four.)

  • Convergence when the topology changes.

  • Picking the best route based on metrics if there is more than one route to a network.

  • Advertising routing information to neighboring routers.

  • Learning routing information from neighboring routers.

  • Updating  MAC tables by using broadcasts.

Routing protocols have many features, including convergence, picking the best routes, advertising routes, and learning routes. Updating MAC tables is a Layer 2 functionality on switches.

114.

Which type of device sends data to and from a wired VLAN to a wireless LAN and utilizes a single trunk link?

  • Autonomous AP

  • Lightweight AP

  • WLC

  • Bridged AP

Correct answer: Autonomous AP

An autonomous access point (AP) is self-contained and uses a trunk link to pass VLANs between the wireless and wired networks. 

A lightweight AP needs a wireless LAN control (WLC) in order to function and uses an access link. A WLC is a centralized management device for lightweight APs.

Bridged AP is a fabricated term.

115.

Which two sentences correctly describe JSON key/value pairs? (Choose two.)

  • For JSON's format, the key is first, followed by a colon, then the value

  • The key is put inside double quotes

  • The key can be text, numeric, an array, or an object

  • The key-value pairs in a JSON list are separated by semi-colons

JSON files are important to use for automation and programmability. For JSON's format, the key is first, followed by a colon, then the value. The key is put inside double quotes.

The value can be text, numeric, an array, or an object. Multiple key pairs are separated by a comma, except after the last pair.

116.

Which two multicast addresses are used to send and receive packets between a DR/BDR and other OSPF routers? (Choose two.)

  • 224.0.0.5

  • 224.0.0.6

  • 224.0.0.9

  • 224.0.0.10

  • 224.0.0.12

The multicast address 224.0.0.5 is reserved by IANA for all OSPF routers and 224.0.0.6 is used for all SPF DRs. Using these addresses makes it more efficient to send messages between OSPF routers.

The address 224.0.0.9 is used for RIPv2 routers. The address 224.0.0.10 is used for EIGRP routers. The address 224.0.0.12 is used for DHCP.

117.

Which two sentences correctly describe AD? (Choose two.)

  • The default AD for static routes is 1.

  • AD can be viewed with the "show ip route" command.

  • AD is used to compare routes that use the same protocol.

  • AD prioritizes routes with the lowest hop count.

Administrative distance (AD) is one method used to select the best route for data to take. The default AD for static routes is 1. The "show ip route" command lists a route entry's AD, along with its metric. AD compares routes that use different routing protocols. Hop count is a metric used by RIP.

118.

Which of the following are key steps of a Terraform workflow? (Choose three.)

  • Write

  • Plan

  • Apply

  • Stage

  • Execute

A Terraform workflow includes three main steps:

  • Write: Create definitions for resources used across different cloud environments in configuration and state files
  • Plan: Describe infrastructure to be created, updated, or destroyed based on existing configuration and infrastructure
  • Apply: Proposed operations are performed in the appropriate order

119.

Which layer does CDP operate on?

  • Layer 2

  • Layer 1

  • Layer 3

  • Layer 4

  • Layer 5

Correct answer: Layer 2

The Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) operates at Layer 2, the data-link layer. It is used to learn about neighboring devices. 

120.

Which feature prevents an access port using PortFast from accidentally creating a network loop?

  • BPDU Guard

  • PagP

  • L4PDU

  • Protected EAP

Correct answer: BPDU Guard

BPDU Guard is used to protect ports that should never receive bridge protocol data unit (BPDU) traffic, such as ports connected to end-devices. This helps prevent loops by disabling ports when this situation occurs.

Port Aggregation Protocol (PagP) is a messaging protocol used with EtherChannel. L4PDU is a Layer 4 protocol data unit that includes headers and encapsulated data. Protected EAP is an authentication method on access points.

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