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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-004) Version 1.0.7 Exam Questions

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61.

You have configured a Linux virtual server to act as a DHCP server on a virtual private network. You configured the server to use the default DHCP port. 

Client devices cannot receive the DHCP addresses from the server. During troubleshooting, you confirm that the client requests are not reaching the DHCP server. 

Unblocking which of the following ports is MOST likely to solve the problem?

  • 68

  • 53

  • 123

  • 989

Correct answer: 68

68 is the default DHCP port.

989 and 990 are the default FTPS ports.

123 is the default NTP port.

53 is the default DNS port.

62.

Acme Cloud LLC. provides a variety of public cloud services. They want to grow their business by serving government clients. 

What will Acme Cloud LLC. need to be compliant with to host US federal government systems on their public cloud infrastructure?

  • FedRAMP

  • SOC 1

  • PCI DSS

  • HIPAA

Correct answer: FedRAMP

Providers that sell cloud services to US federal government agencies must be compliant with FedRAMP. 

SOC 1 is related to financial reporting.

PCI DSS is related to payment card processing and data. 

HIPAA is related to healthcare information.

63.

You would like to provision your virtual hard disk with the minimum amount of space to start off with and allocate more space as your application grows. 

What type of provisioning model should you use?

  • Thin provisioning

  • Thick provisioning

  • Virtual provisioning

  • Meta-provisioning

Correct answer: Thin provisioning

Thin provisioning allocates only the space that is actually consumed. As more and more data is written to the disk, additional storage will be allocated dynamically, as needed.

Thick provisioning is the allocation of all the defined storage space at the time of creation. 

Meta-provisioning and virtual provisioning are distractor answers.

64.

Which of the following is likely to have the MOST changes from the current version of an application?

  • Service pack

  • Hotfix

  • QFE update

  • Rollup

Correct answer: Service pack

A hotfix is a targeted fix for a critical issue. 

A quick fix engineering (QFE) update is another term for a hotfix. 

A rollup is a type of update that includes multiple patches which are typically related to a specific category. 

A service pack contains all the patches and rollups for a system since the last main release or service pack. Therefore, of the listed options, a service pack is expected to have the most changes.

65.

A virtual machine has utilized all of its available RAM and moves some of its RAM content to a file saved in disk storage. 

What is the name of this file?

  • Swap file

  • Memory cache 

  • L2TP

  • DRAM

Correct answer: Swap file

A swap file is a special type of file machines use as virtual RAM. When all of a machine's RAM is allocated, it can move some memory to disk in a swap file.

Memory cache is a distractor answer. Memory would not be part of disk storage. 

L2TP is a tunneling protocol. 

DRAM is a type of RAM.

66.

IaC can be BEST described as helping teams do which of the following?

  • Automate resource provisioning

  • Improve network performance

  • Backup SQL data automatically

  • Migrate resources to the cloud

Correct answer: Automate resource provisioning

Infrastructure as code (IaC) helps teams automate resource provisioning. It helps achieve repeatable results when provisioning infrastructure. 

Improving network performance, backing up SQL data, and migrating resources to the cloud are NOT the primary IaC use cases.

67.

What metric describes the maximum end-to-end network bandwidth available?

  • Capacity

  • Throughput

  • Cost

  • Idle time

Correct answer: Capacity

Capacity is a metric that is used to measure the end-to-end network bandwidth in an environment. It accounts for the cloud provider's connectivity and other connections in line with a system. 

Cost is how much a user pays.

Idle time is time a resource is unused.

Throughput is a speed measurement often associated with networking. For example, a system may transmit a certain number of bits per second. That number would be its network throughput.

68.

Acme Inc. uses a SaaS-like cloud service solution for their videoconferencing, instant messaging, voice over IP, and collaboration tooling. 

What cloud service model is Acme Inc. using in this case?

  • CaaS

  • DBaaS

  • Public 

  • DaaS

Correct answer: CaaS

Communications as a service (CaaS) is a cloud service model that is similar to software as a service (SaaS) but focuses on collaboration and communication solutions such as instant messaging and videoconferencing.

Database as a service (DBaaS) provides databases in a SaaS-like model.

Desktop as a service (DaaS) provides remote access to services that are traditionally provided as workstations or laptops via a cloud service model. 

Public cloud is a cloud deployment model, not a cloud service model.

69.

You want to establish alerts such that when a metric is a certain percentage above the usual and expected value, an alert is sent to the operator on call. 

What type of data would provide the usual and expected value?

  • Baseline

  • Deviation

  • Variance

  • Archived

Correct answer: Baseline

A baseline is the starting point used for comparisons when monitoring system activity.

Deviations and variance from baseline data may be indicators of a problem or a reasonable trigger for an alert. 

Archived data is inactive (not currently/frequently used) data that is typically stored on media intended for long-term storage.

70.

Using the shared responsibility model, who is responsible for data in a SaaS service?

  • Consumer

  • CSP

  • Cloud vendor

  • Cloud provider

Correct answer: Consumer

In the shared responsibility model, consumers are responsible for data, end-user systems, and user and service account management for SaaS, IaaS, and PaaS platforms. 

The cloud service provider (CSP) typically has responsibilities up to the directory/identity infrastructure layer or "lower."

"Cloud vendor" and "cloud provider," in this context, can both refer to the CSP.

71.

What logging-related capability would enable related events to be combined to provide a more holistic view of an incident or event and indication of root cause?

  • Event correlation

  • Event patterning

  • Event trending

  • Event analysis

Correct answer: Event correlation

Event correlation is a technique for synthesizing large amounts of event data, analyzing relationships between events, and identifying patterns to determine the root cause.

Event patterning and event trending are distractor terms.

Event analysis is a generic term for reviewing and analyzing events.

72.

Luka is a security engineer at Acme Inc. While analyzing email traffic, Luka notices that an email address has a FROM address that is different from its actual source address.

This FROM address mismatch is a likely example of what?

  • Spoofing

  • MiTM

  • DNS poisoning

  • Reflection

Correct answer: Spoofing

Spoofing occurs when an attacker presents an address or identity that is modified to look like it comes from one (usually legitimate) source, but it is actually from another.

Man-in-the-middle (MiTM) attacks occur when an attacker places themselves between a sender and recipient of information so the attacker can read and/or modify information. 

DNS poisoning involves injecting incorrect or malicious information into the DNS cache. 

A reflection attack is a type of denial of service (DoS) attack.

73.

What query tool command would you use to find out the MAC addresses of devices on the network that have IP addresses?

  • arp

  • netstat

  • ifconfig

  • ipconfig

Correct answer: arp

The arp command allows users to view and modify the local Address Resolution Protocol cache, which contains recently resolved MAC addresses of Internet Protocol hosts on the network. The MAC address is needed for communication to take place over the network.

netstat is used to display network statistics and open ports.

ifconfig (Linux) and ipconfig (Windows) display information about local network interfaces.

74.

Integer, date, and decimal are examples of what type of database element?

  • Data types

  • Schemas

  • Functions

  • Views

Correct answer: Data types

Integer, date, and decimal are all examples of data types. 

Database schemas define how a database is structured. 

Database functions are computations such as count or sum. 

Database views are alternative ways to view the data in a database table(s).

75.

Using PKI, what is needed to decrypt a message encrypted with a public key?

  • The associated private key

  • The same public key

  • A strong random number generator

  • The CA's public key

Correct answer: The associated private key

With public key infrastructure (PKI), an associated private key is needed to decrypt data that was encrypted with a public key. 

A certificate authority's (CA's) key or random number generator is not required in this case.

76.

Your organization recently configured long-distance replication of a key ERP system to a secondary site 1,000 miles away. The ERP system is now running slow, in spite of the fact that performance metrics on the servers show low utilization and plenty of capacity. 

During troubleshooting, you established network latency as the probable cause and ran several network tests that validated your theory.

Business priorities indicate that maintaining ERP performance is more important than fast completion of the replication. 

What is a reasonable plan of action to resolve the problem?

  • Assign replication to a lower priority QoS level than ERP

  • Assign ERP to a lower priority QoS level than replication

  • Run replication once a month

  • Decommission the replication

Correct answer: Assign replication to a lower priority QoS level than ERP

The ERP workload is business-critical and used by a very large user base. Therefore, it should have priority over the replication workload. Assigning replication to a lower priority QoS level would help ensure bandwidth was first allocated to the ERP service where performance was more important. 

Running replication once a month would not resolve the problem directly. Decommissioning the replication goes too far and causes the business to lose out on the replication functionality altogether.

77.

When establishing a plan of action during troubleshooting, what controls should you include in your plan if it involves modifying system configurations?

  • Change controls

  • Technical controls

  • Access management controls

  • Physical controls

Correct answer: Change controls

During the troubleshooting process, it is likely that you will make system changes. Best practice is to follow the organization's change management processes for any changes documented in the action plan.

Technical controls, access management controls, and physical controls may come up as part of specific troubleshooting steps, but they would not necessarily apply to system changes in the same way a change control process does.

78.

What is the purpose of a QA environment?

  • QA is where software testers evaluate code and the potential impact on other parts of the system

  • QA is where programmers test their small units of code

  • QA is where the business end users test their code

  • QA is where maintenance and support take place

Correct answer: QA is where software testers evaluate code and the potential impact on other parts of the system

Deployments are implemented in three landscapes: development, quality assurance (QA), and production. Developers do their individual programming and testing in the development landscape. When they are individually done and combine their code into a function, it is ready to test as an integrated unit, and this takes place in QA. 

After extensive testing and user acceptance (which takes place in a separate user environment), the code is placed into the production landscape. 

Production is where maintenance and support take place.

79.

Why are standard operating procedures considered to be a form of knowledge management?

  • They document institutional knowledge

  • They increase variability and performance

  • They are given to outside third-party vendors

  • They cannot be modified

Correct answer: They document institutional knowledge

Standard operating procedures (SOPs) document the knowledge individuals gain and help ensure consistency (not variability) in performance. This allows a broader set of employees, some of whom may be new and less experienced, to gain the benefit of this knowledge to use for their tasks. The goal is that everyone follows the same consistent procedures. 

Whether an SOP is given to a third party is not relevant to why it is a form of knowledge management. 

SOPs can be modified if needed.

80.

While troubleshooting a connectivity issue on a Windows virtual machine, you determine you need to check if a specific record exists on your network's DNS servers.

Which command should you use?

  • nslookup

  • ping

  • tcpdump

  • dnsdump

Correct answer: nslookup

nslookup can be used to query DNS servers and look up DNS records. 

ping is used to check connectivity between endpoints. 

tcpdump is a packet capture utility. 

dnsdump is not a standard utility or command.

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