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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

CompTIA Network+ (N10-008) Exam Questions

Page 5 of 55

81.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using a switch rather than a hub?

  • Total cost of ownership

  • Increased functionality

  • Separate collision domains

  • Better security

Correct answer: Total cost of ownership

The total cost of ownership may be significantly lower with a hub. That may be a reason to use a hub rather than a switch, but you would miss out on all the features that switches offer.

Compared to hubs, switches provide:

  • Increased functionality
  • Separate collision domains
  • Better security
  • Improved performance
  • Scalability
  • Increased efficiency

82.

You need to locate a sinkhole router on your network. Which of the following command-line tools can assist you with this task?

  • traceroute

  • nslookup

  • arp

  • netstat

Correct answer: traceroute

Sinkhole routers silently drop packets that are larger than a network's Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) and have the Don't Fragment (DF) flag set. These routers can be identified using traceroute.

The nslookup, arp, and netstat commands will not assist in locating a sinkhole router.

The nslookup command displays Domain Name System (DNS) information.

The arp command shows Media Access Control (MAC) addresses associated with known Internet Protocol (IP) addresses.

The netstat command shows network statistics.

83.

What common Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port does Secure Shell (SSH) operate on?

  • 22

  • 21

  • 20

  • 25

Correct answer: 22

Secure Shell (SSH) operates on Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port 22 and provides a secure tunnel connection for several protocols. Simple File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) is an example of a protocol that uses SSH.

Normal File Transfer Protocol (FTP) uses TCP on ports 20 and 21, and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) operates on TCP port 25.

84.

What is the name for a value that rates how trustworthy routing information is?

  • Administrative distance

  • Trust score

  • Route rank

  • Route believability

Correct answer: Administrative distance

The administrative distance is a measure of how trustworthy routing information received from a neighboring router is. This ranges from 0 (highly trustworthy) to 255 (don't use this route).

Default administrative distances include:

  • 0 - Connected interface
  • 1 - Static route
  • 20 - External BGP
  • 90 - Internal EIGRP
  • 110 - OSPF
  • 115 - IS-IS
  • 120 - RIPv1 and RIPv2

Trust score, route rank, and route believability are fabricated terms.

85.

Why are UPS devices needed when there are generators that can provide backup power to a data center?

  • Switchover lag

  • Limited capacity

  • Configuration mismatch

  • Regulatory compliance

Correct answer: Switchover lag

Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) devices are still needed in data centers even though there is generator backup because there will typically be a switchover time lag between the moment of a power outage and the complete startup of the backup generator. Diesel generators in particular require a startup period before taking over power.

Limited capacity, configuration mismatch, and regulatory compliance are not the primary issues that come into play at the moment of a power outage.

86.

What is the term used to describe a scenario in which a network's packets are so large that they must be fragmented to travel over a network?

  • MTU mismatch

  • Sinkhole router

  • Incorrect default gateway

  • Exhausted DHCP scope

Correct answer: MTU mismatch

A Message Transfer Unit (MTU) defines the largest packet size allowed by a network. An MTU mismatch is when a packet's size exceeds this value and must be fragmented into multiple packets.

The scenario described can lead to a sinkhole router if the packets have the Don't Fragment (DF) bit set and the router is configured to not respond to the sender, but since this is not specified in the question, the problem is simply an MTU mismatch.

An incorrect default gateway would result in a lack of connectivity beyond the local network.

An exhausted Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) scope would prevent new devices from automatically receiving an Internet Protocol (IP) address from the DHCP server.

87.

How many bits are in a Media Access Control (MAC) address?

  • 48 bits

  • 8 bits

  • 24 bits

  • 16 bits

Correct answer: 48 bits

A Media Access Control (MAC) address is a unique identifier that exists on every Network Interface Card (NIC). No two NICs will ever share the same MAC address. MAC addresses consist of 48 bits.

These 48 bits are divided into two parts. The Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI) is 24 bits and is assigned by IEEE. The other 24 bits are assigned by the vendor.

The responses 8 bits, 24 bits, and 16 bits are incorrect.

88.

You are a systems administrator and need to access a Windows computer remotely and control it as if you were sitting right in front of it. Which of the following remote access methods allows you to do this?

  • RDP

  • SSH

  • SFTP

  • BYOD

Correct answer: RDP

The Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) allows you to connect to a remote system as if you were sitting right in front of it at the remote location.

The Secure Shell Protocol (SSH) allows you to send commands to a remote system securely, but it would not allow you to control the device as if you were right in front of it like RDP would.

Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) is a protocol that permits the transfer of files over a network, but it would not be used to connect to a device and control it.

Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) is a company policy whereby users are permitted to use their own network devices for work.

89.

Of the following, which represents how a Class B network's bytes are allocated?

  • Network.Network.Host.Host

  • Network.Host.Host.Host

  • Network.Network.Network.Host

  • Host.Host.Host.Host

Correct answer: Network.Network.Host.Host

The three classes of networks allocate their bytes as follows:

  • Class A: Class A networks use 8 bits for the network and 24 for the host (Network.Host.Host.Host)
  • Class B: Class B networks use 16 bits for the network and 16 for the host (Network.Network.Host.Host)
  • Class C: Class C networks use 24 bits for the network and 8 for the host (Network.Network.Network.Host)

There is no such thing as a Host.Host.Host.Host address.

90.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of MU-MIMO over MIMO?

  • Uses spatial multiplexing

  • Supports more users

  • Reduces buffering

  • Enable faster throughput

Correct answer: Uses spatial multiplexing

Both Multi-User Multiple-Input Multiple-Output (MU-MIMO) and Multiple-Input Multiple-Output (MIMO) wireless technologies use spatial multiplexing. So, spatial multiplexing is not an advantage of MU-MIMO over MIMO.

MU-MIMO coordinates antenna usage across multiple different wireless access points. This allows multiple users to transmit at the same time while avoiding collisions, thereby increasing the efficiency of the use of available wireless channels. Advantages of MU-MIMO over MIMO include:

  • Supports more users
  • Reduces buffering
  • Enables faster throughput

91.

Which of the following may be the cause if a network's users can visit websites by typing an IP address but not a hostname?

  • DNS

  • DHCP

  • WINS

  • Proxy

Correct answer: DNS

DNS infrastructure is responsible for translating hostnames to IP addresses. The ability to access websites based on IP addresses but not hostnames implies that something is wrong with the DNS infrastructure.

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is used to automatically allocate IP addresses to new network devices.

Windows Internet Naming Service (WINS) maps names to IP addresses on a Windows machine.

A proxy is a server that takes the place of another server.

92.

Which wireless security standard expanded the initialization vector to 48 bits?

  • WPA

  • WEP

  • WEP pre-shared key

  • CCMP

Correct answer: WPA

Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) was developed by the non-profit Wi-Fi Alliance to address the security issues of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP). WPA encrypts data with the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP), which uses a 48-bit Initialization Vector (IV) instead of WEP's 24-bit IV.

The initialization vector of WEP is 24 bits.

A WEP Pre-Shared Key (PSK) is a shared secret used in WEP.

Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) is a wireless encryption protocol.

93.

Which of the following statements regarding asymmetrical encryption is FALSE?

  • Asymmetrical encryption is faster and easier than symmetrical encryption.

  • Asymmetrical encryption is used to issue certificates.

  • Asymmetrical encryption uses a public key and a private key.

  • Asymmetrical encryption uses the Diffie-Hellman algorithm for key exchange.

Correct answer: Asymmetrical encryption is faster and easier than symmetrical encryption.

The statement "Asymmetrical encryption is faster and easier than symmetrical encryption." is false. Asymmetrical encryption is slower and more complex to implement than symmetrical encryption. Asymmetrical encryption deals with two keys rather than one, and it has more complex algorithms than symmetrical encryption.

The statement "Asymmetrical encryption is used to issue certificates." is true.

The statement "Asymmetrical encryption uses a public key and a private key." is true. Symmetrical encryption, on the other hand, uses the same key for encryption and decryption.

The statement "Asymmetrical encryption uses the Diffie-Hellman algorithm for key exchange." is true.

94.

Which of the following is a Cisco proprietary method for link aggregation?

  • EtherChannel

  • ISL

  • LACP

  • GLBP

Correct answer: EtherChannel

EtherChannel is a Cisco proprietary link aggregation method. Cisco uses the proprietary port channel negotiation protocol Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) to create EtherChannel links. Port channeling involves the bundling of multiple ports into a single logical channel. EtherChannel creation is a feature and method used by PAgP, but the two terms are not synonymous.

Inter-Switch Link (ISL) is a Cisco proprietary Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) tagging method.

Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) is a nonproprietary protocol used to create port channel links similar to PAgP.

Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP) is a Cisco proprietary form of First Hop Redundancy Protocol (FHRP).

95.

You have been directed to enable Virtual Private Network (VPN) connectivity for remote access to the organization. The connections should allow users Internet access, but only through the organization's internal network. Which type of tunnel is required?

  • Full tunnel

  • Divided tunnel

  • Spit tunnel

  • Internet tunnel

Correct answer: Full tunnel

A full tunnel ensures that all remote user traffic passes through the organization's internal network. A client-to-site Virtual Private Network (VPN) can be used for remote access to a company's internal network. Many organizations require that any Internet traffic through the VPN travels through a full tunnel so that all traffic can be inspected.

Divided tunnel is a fabricated term.

A spit tunnel separates the traffic so that the user can connect either directly to the Internet or directly to the company network.

Internet tunnel is a fabricated term.

96.

You would like to determine whether there is a fault in a fiber cable following installation near an office building. You also want to check polarity and make sure the right type of fiber was used. Which tool should you use to determine this?

  • Visual fault locator

  • Cable tester

  • Time-Domain Reflectometer (TDR)

  • Toner probe

Correct answer: Visual fault locator

A visual fault locator is used to find faults and verify continuity in a fiber connection. It can also check polarity and identify the fiber type.

A cable tester is used to determine if there is a continuity problem or if a wire map is incorrect. There are cable testers for both copper and fiber connections, but they are usually simpler and do not include polarity checks or identification of fiber. A Time-Domain Reflectometer (TDR) is used to locate breaks in a copper cable. A toner probe is used to locate a specific cable.

97.

Which type of service set uses only one Access Point (AP)?

  • BSS

  • ESS

  • IBSS

  • SSID

Correct answer: BSS

A Basic Service Set (BSS) WLAN uses a single Access Point (AP). Because this wireless AP is often connected to a wired network infrastructure, BSSs often run in "infrastructure mode".

An Extended Service Set (ESS) WLAN is a WLAN containing two or more APs and also runs in "infrastructure mode".

An Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS) WLAN is a temporary, ad hoc network created without the use of a wireless AP (to transfer files, etc.).

A Service Set Identifier (SSID) names a wireless network and is broadcast by an AP to advertise the network to devices.

98.

Which of the following specifications identifies the cable television frequencies used for data transmission?

  • DOCSIS

  • HFC

  • DSLAM

  • TDM

Correct answer: DOCSIS

The Data-Over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS) identifies the frequencies dedicated to data transmission and handling.

A Hybrid Fiber-Coaxial (HFC) network is how cable companies provide high-speed transmission to specific locations before it is broken down into a slower-speed coaxial configuration. A DSL Access Multiplexer (DSLAM) is a device that terminates multiple DSL connections from customers. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) is a technology that enables multiple transmissions to share the same medium.

99.

You are troubleshooting a network connectivity issue. You have just established a theory for probable cause. What is the next step of the troubleshooting process?

  • Test the theory to determine the cause.

  • Establish a plan of action.

  • Implement a solution or escalate if necessary.

  • Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Correct answer: Test the theory to determine the cause.

The step after establishing a probable cause is to test the theory and determine the cause.

These are the basic steps in the troubleshooting process:

  1. Identify the problem.
  2. Establish a theory of probable cause.
  3. Test the theory to determine the cause.
  4. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.
  5. Implement the solution or escalate if necessary.
  6. Verify full system functionality.
  7. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

100.

Which of the following is NOT the same as the others?

  • Switch

  • Hub

  • Repeater

  • Network adapter

Correct answer: Switch

A switch is a Layer 2 (data link layer) device.

A hub is a Layer 1 device. Unlike a switch, it does not use its ports to separate traffic into different broadcast domains. It is basically a "dumb" device.

A repeater is also a Layer 1 device and is similar to a hub. It simply forwards (repeats) bits through the network without any processing.

A network adapter is also a Layer 1 device and does not process traffic.

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