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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

CompTIA Network+ (N10-008) Exam Questions

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121.

Which regulation applies to the use of point-of-sale devices?

  • PCI DSS

  • HIPAA

  • GDPR

  • GLBA

Correct answer: PCI DSS

The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards (PCI DSS) governs debit and credit card transactions on point-of-sale devices such as card readers.

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) protects the private data of healthcare patients.

General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a data privacy law in the European Union (EU).

Gramm-Leach-Blily Act (GLBA) governs the use of customer data by providers of financial products and services.

122.

An organization wants to ensure that whatever network topology they choose, a single connection break will not result in a breakdown of the entire network.

Which network topology should they avoid in this case?

  • Ring

  • Full mesh

  • Partial mesh

  • Dual-ring

Correct answer: Ring

Ring topologies, in some instances, have only one connection between two systems. This can result in what is known as a "single point of failure" (SPOF). A break in the connection can result in a disruption that compromises the entire ring topology. To prevent this, one can use a dual-ring topology.

A full mesh topology offers many physical paths between two devices, but can be expensive to implement.

A partial mesh will offer greater connectivity, but not as much as a full mesh.

A dual-ring topology is more fault-tolerant because it offers a backup communications route.

123.

Which of the following is a popular firewall feature used to translate private IP addresses from an inside network to publicly routable IP addresses on the Internet?

  • NAT

  • Perimeter network

  • Packet filtering

  • Stateful inspection

Correct answer: NAT

Network Address Translation (NAT) converts internal, private IP addresses to publicly-routable IP addresses at the network boundary. This allows a many-to-one relationship between internal and external addresses.

A perimeter network or screened subnet hosts servers that should be accessible from the public internet (web, email, etc.). The perimeter firewall allows through legitimate protocols for these services (HTTP, SMTP, etc.) but blocks others.

A firewall uses a set of predefined rules to determine if traffic should be permitted to enter or leave a protected network or be blocked from doing so. Packet-filtering firewalls inspect packet headers and permit or deny traffic based on predefined rules such as permitting certain IP addresses or protocols.

Stateful firewalls keep track of the state of a network session, enabling it to permit legitimate packets from a session but block packets that are not valid in context, such as a TCP SYN/ACK without a preceding SYN. Stateful firewalls can be used to permit outbound connections while blocking inbound ones.

124.

A load balancer sits at which layer of a software-defined network?

  • Application layer

  • Control layer

  • Infrastructure layer

  • Spine layer

Correct answer: Application layer

The application layer implements the normal functions of a network, including load balancing.

The control layer interfaces between the application and infrastructure layers, implementing application-layer requests within the infrastructure layer. The infrastructure layer implements the physical network. Spine layer is a fabricated term.

125.

Which of the following is NOT used for network synchronization?

  • RTP

  • NTS

  • NTP

  • PTP

Correct answer: RTP

RTP is NOT a network synchronization protocol. Real-time Transport Protocol (RTP) is used to send real-time audio and video over the Internet.

Network Time Security (NTS), Network Time Protocol (NTP), and Precision Time Protocol (PTP) are all used for network synchronization. These protocols ensure that network devices obtain the accurate time from a reliable source.

NTS is a secure version of NTP, which uses a hierarchical system of time sources.

PTP provides accuracy down to the nanosecond, compared to NTP, which provides accuracy down to the sub-millisecond. PTP is used when more precise timing is required.

126.

Of the following attack types, which is specifically a wireless attack?

  • Deauthentication

  • Brute force

  • Dictionary attack

  • Social engineering

Correct answer: Deauthentication

Deauthentication is the process of sending a deauthentication frame to a victim in order to disconnect them from their wireless Local Area Network (LAN). This is often coupled with an evil twin attack to try to get the victim to connect to a rogue access point.

A brute force attack uses a trial-and-error approach to try to crack a password.

A dictionary attack attempts to break a password using a preset list.

Brute force attacks, dictionary attacks, and social engineering are not specifically wireless attacks.

Social engineering occurs when someone attempts to psychologically manipulate users into revealing confidential information.

127.

Which SNMP version provides for both DES and AES encryption?

  • SNMPv3

  • SNMPv1

  • SNMPv2c

  • SNMPv4

Correct answer: SNMPv3

SNMPv3 includes Data Encryption Standard (DES) and DES-256. DES is no longer considered secure. AES is considered a secure encryption standard.

SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c do not include DES or AES encryption.

SNMPv4 does not exist at this time.

128.

Of the following, which term is used to describe when the time delta between packets varies?

  • Jitter

  • Delay

  • Drops

  • Bad routes

Correct answer: Jitter

Jitter is when the time between packet arrivals differs from one packet to another. For example, two packets may be 10 ms apart, while the next are 40 ms apart. With jitter, all packets reach their destination eventually but do so at unpredictable times.

Delay is the time it takes for packets to arrive, while jitter refers to a variation in the time for packets to arrive.

Packet drops, or packet loss, can occur for a variety of reasons.

Bad routes may cause packets to be delayed or not to be delivered at all. This may be due to misconfiguration or the result of network events.

129.

A hub can be described as which of the following?

  • Multiport repeater

  • Switched device

  • Router

  • Transparent bridge

Correct answer: Multiport repeater

A hub is considered a dumb device. It technically operates at the physical layer because it simply repeats signals received out to every port. This is why it's considered a multiport repeater, and because it simply replicates the bits out to every port, it interfaces directly with the medium.

A switched device operates at layer 2, the data link layer. Unlike a hub, a switch separates traffic into separate, unique collision domains for each port.

A router operates at layer 3 and performs different functions from a hub.

Like a switch, a transparent bridge separates collision domains and does not replicate bits out to every port.

130.

A technician asks you how to obtain protocol statistics and the active TCP/IP network connections of his computer. Which of the following commands would you tell him to use?

  • netstat

  • nbtstat

  • ipconfig

  • nslookup

Correct answer: netstat

The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) connections. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer, incoming and outgoing data, and the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected.

The nbtstat command displays information about NetBIOS.

The ipconfig command displays IP configuration information.

The nslookup command shows Domain Name System (DNS) information.

131.

Of the following, which are you LEAST LIKELY to find in an acceptable use policy?

  • Passwords must be changed every 90 days.

  • Equipment and any proprietary information stored on company computers are the property of the organization.

  • Anything that a user does while on a company-owned device is subject to monitoring.

  • Users will not visit any adult or inappropriate websites.

Correct answer: Passwords must be changed every 90 days.

Of the options given, changing passwords every 90 days is the least likely to show up in an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP). That type of statement would be more likely to show up in a password policy. However, data and equipment ownership, monitoring, and inappropriate browsing are all likely to appear on an AUP.

A statement about equipment and any proprietary information stored on company computers is likely to be in an AUP.

An AUP may also include a statement about the possibility of monitoring users while they are on a company-owned device.

Visiting inappropriate websites would likely be addressed in an AUP.

132.

A network technician is working to resolve slow network connectivity on a user's workstation. Tests indicate that the connection is stable, the cable is properly shielded, and it can connect to network resources and the internet, albeit at significantly reduced speeds. Which of the following is MOST LIKELY the culprit?

  • Cable and duplex mismatch

  • dB loss

  • Crosstalk

  • Short in the cable

Correct answer: Cable and duplex mismatch

Because network connectivity is maintained and typical tests are returning normal, there is likely a hardware conflict involved in terms of cable and duplex mismatch. When an incorrect cable is used, or the duplex is incorrectly set, it can significantly impact the speeds of the network connection for workstations.

dB loss is caused by splits, splices, and if a cable has a long distance to go. dB loss is more likely to cause an unstable connection than reduced bandwidth. Crosstalk is interference between different pairs of wires. Shorts occur when multiple copper wires touch, causing current to flow through the short rather than the intended circuit. This would cause a complete loss of function.

133.

Normally, a webserver will send more bytes than it receives, and a workstation used to browse the web will receive more bytes than it sends because HTTP responses are much larger than HTTP requests. Which netstat flag would you use to view only the number of TCP bytes and packets that a computer has sent and received?

  • -sp

  • -as

  • -ap

  • -ep

Correct answer: -sp

The netstat -p flag specifies a particular protocol, making it possible to look at only TCP packets with -p. The -s flag prints statistics, including the number of bytes sent and received. Combined, they provide the desired information.

The netstat -a command prints information for all active IP sessions including TCP and UDP port numbers. Combined with the -s or -p flags, it would not provide the desired information.

The netstat -e flag prints the number of bytes, unicast packets, non-unicast packets, and discards that a computer has sent and received.

134.

Which of the following does NOT support encryption protocols and CANNOT participate in an encrypted session?

  • Hub

  • Firewall

  • VPN concentrator

  • Router

Correct answer: Hub

A hub operates at layer 1, focuses on transferring bits, and has no support for encryption.

Enterprise firewalls, VPN concentrators, and routers all have the ability to support encryption algorithms (like AES) and operate at higher levels of the OSI model.

135.

A switch differs from a hub in which of the following ways?

  • It isolates portions of the network

  • It connects nodes to networks

  • It replicates network traffic to ports

  • It is used to connect network segments

Correct answer: It isolates portions of the network

A hub is capable of connecting network segments and hosts to the rest of the network as well as replicating data to its ports, but switches are capable of isolating network segments, as well. For example, when computers are within the same collision domain, it is possible for two computers to send traffic at the same time, causing a collision. Switches have individual collision domains for each port, negating this issue.

Both switches and hubs can connect nodes to networks, replicate network traffic to ports, and connect network segments.

136.

Of the following, which details and outlines how the process of authentication will occur in the protocol IEEE 802.1X?

  • EAP

  • TFA

  • MFA

  • SSO

Correct answer: EAP

An Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is designed to authenticate a "supplicant" to an "authenticator" and create a shared session key. EAP works with IEEE 802.1X and expands on the protocols used by the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP). Examples of EAP protocols include Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling (EAP-FAST), Message Digest 5 (EAP-MD5), and Transport Layer Security (EAP-TLS).

Two-Factor Authentication (TFA) requires a user to present two "factors" or types of authentication material to log in. Factors can be "something you know" (password, etc.), "something you have" (smartcard, smartphone, etc.), or "something you are" (fingerprint, facial recognition, etc.).

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) is more general than 2FA, allowing two or more factors.

With Single-Sign-On (SSO), a user logs in once and then is able to access multiple systems. The SSO system distributes authentication data so that a user does not need to log into each system.

137.

What is the MOST LIKELY result of enabling all routing protocols on all routers?

  • Excessive CPU utilization

  • Disabled routes

  • Faster response

  • Higher available bandwidth

Correct answer: Excessive CPU utilization

The most likely result of enabling all routing protocols on all routers is high Central Processing Unit (CPU) utilization. Excessive demand on router computing resources can be caused by running routing protocols that are not needed. For example, Routing Information Protocol (RIP) may be acceptable for small networks, but it is probably unnecessary and should be disabled on larger networks because it will only cause increased router CPU utilization and network bandwidth usage.

Enabling all routing protocols on all routers, will not disable routes, but such overengineering could render many routes unnecessary. Routes with higher Administrative Distance (AD) will be ignored in favor of routes with lower AD.

Enabling all routing protocols on all routers will most likely result in a slower network response rather than a faster response.

Enabling all routing protocols on all routers will most likely result in lower available bandwidth rather than higher available bandwidth.

138.

A Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) manager has just received an unsolicited message sent from a managed device in regard to a significant event that has occurred on that device. What type of SNMP message is this?

  • Trap

  • Get

  • Set

  • Fax

Correct answer: Trap

The three main types of SNMP messages are:

  • Trap: A message to the SNMP manager from one of the managed devices that indicates that a significant event has occurred on that device. This is the only type of SNMP message initiated by a managed device and not the SNMP manager.
  • Get: Gets information from an SNMP-managed device.
  • Set: Triggers an action or sets the value of a variable on a managed device.

Fax is not a type of SNMP message.

139.

A company has breached a regulatory standard and now must pay for credit-monitoring services for victims. Which of the following standards was likely breached?

  • PCI DSS

  • GDPR

  • HIPAA

  • SOX

Correct answer: PCI DSS

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards (PCI DSS) is a standard that dictates the usage of payment cards, such as credit or debit cards, in the transaction of business. The rules of PCI DSS are enforced by banks and creditors. Failure to comply with PCI DSS may result in legal action, including a requirement to pay for credit-monitoring services for breach victims.

General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a law created by the European Union (EU) to protect privacy data.

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is a set of regulations in the US to protect the private data of patients in the healthcare system.

Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) is a regulation for publicly traded companies in the US. SOX is enforced by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC).

140.

Which of the following uses a RADIUS or another authentication server?

  • WPA Enterprise

  • WEP

  • WPA2 Personal

  • WPA

Correct answer: WPA Enterprise

Wi-Fi Protected Access version 2 (WPA2) implements the 802.11i authentication standard. This includes the ability to use enterprise mode, which uses a RADIUS or other authentication server rather than a pre-shared key. It is commonly used in business enterprise environments.

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) was officially retired by the Wi-Fi Alliance in 2004. Wired Equivalent Privacy personal mode or Pre-Shared Key (WPA2-PSK) is commonly used for home routers and does not require an authentication server. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) is a less secure standard that was introduced in 2003.

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