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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Exam Questions

Page 8 of 55

141.

Of the following technologies, which is used by WLANs to determine when they have access to the wireless media?

  • CSMA/CA

  • CSMA/CD

  • RSTP

  • MIMO

Correct answer: CSMA/CA

Carrier-Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) is designed to avoid collisions on Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) networks. When a device using CSMA/CA detects a collision (i.e., a simultaneous transmission by two devices), it sets a random back-off timer before trying again. Since these timers are random, the probability of the colliding devices setting the same value and colliding again is low.

Carrier-Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) works the same way for wired Ethernet networks.

The Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RTSP) helps to prevent network loops.

Multiple Input, Multiple Output (MIMO) allows the use of multiple antennas for transmission and reception.

142.

The use of a VPN is MOST likely to be a part of which of the following types of policies?

  • Remote access policy

  • Acceptable use policy

  • Password policy

  • Onboarding policy

Correct answer: Remote access policy

A remote access policy specifies how remote workers can access corporate resources. It may mandate the use of secure remote access solutions such as a VPN or Zero-Trust Network Access (ZTNA).

A password policy defines rules for the strength of user passwords. By requiring strong passwords, an organization protects against account takeover attacks.

Acceptable use policies define how employees are permitted to use corporate systems and can prevent browsing inappropriate websites while at work.

An onboarding policy provides guidance for bringing on new employees and may include training, account creation, and assignment of computing devices.

143.

Which of the following policies may have rules designed to protect the organization from infected devices?

  • BYOD policy

  • Password policy

  • Acceptable use policy

  • Remote access policy

Correct answer: BYOD policy

Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policies create rules for the use of personal devices for business. They may include requirements for endpoint security solutions, such as the use of a reputable antivirus, to protect against malware infections.

A password policy defines rules for the strength of user passwords. By requiring strong passwords, an organization protects against account takeover attacks.

Acceptable use policies define how employees are permitted to use corporate systems and can prevent browsing inappropriate websites while at work.

A remote access policy specifies how remote workers can access corporate resources. It may mandate the use of secure remote access solutions such as a Virtual Private Network (VPN) or Zero-Trust Network Access (ZTNA).

144.

Which set of wireless radio bands includes the ranges in the prompt passage below?

  • U-NII

  • NII

  • NFC

  • ISM

Correct answer: U-NII

The set of wireless radio bands that includes the ranges in the prompt passage is called the Unlicensed National Information Infrastructure (U-NII). Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) network settings include 2.4 GHz, 5 GHz, and 6 GHz. U-NII is a set of wireless bands approved by the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) in the US. The naming convention for these ranges extends from U-NII-1 to U-NII-8. The names for these ranges are as follows:

  • U-NII-1 - 5.15-5.25
  • U-NII-2A - 5.25-5.35
  • U-NII-3 - 5.725-5.825

NII is a misspelling of the correct term U-NII.

Near-Field Communication (NFC) is used for contactless payment using a short-range wireless connection.

Industrial, Scientific, and Medical (ISM) radio bands include 902–928 MHz, 2.4 to 2.5 GHz, and 5.725 GHz to 5.875 GHz.

145.

Which of the following issues is LEAST LIKELY to be caused by poor placement of a wireless Access Point (AP)?

  • Device saturation

  • Interference

  • Signal loss

  • Insufficient wireless coverage

Correct answer: Device saturation

Device saturation is more likely a problem with having too few Access Points (APs) to support the number of devices rather than the AP's locations.

Interference may be the result of a poorly placed wireless AP.

Signal loss may occur if the wireless AP is too far away from the device.

Insufficient wireless coverage may occur if the wireless AP is poorly placed.

146.

Which of the following would be considered a secure password?

  • j9NX^WnZfbN$Vkz

  • @cmeInc1

  • Robertsmith1977

  • password123

Correct answer: j9NX^WnZfbN$Vkz

The other passwords are easily guessable and would not present much difficulty for a dictionary attack, as they are based on dictionary words. The correct answer provides a secure password with uppercase and lowercase letters along with numbers and special characters. An effective password policy should include the following:

  • Education for end users
  • Strong password requirements, such as
    • Minimum password length
    • Restrictions on the use of proper names
    • Password expiration
    • No previously used passwords allowed
    • No words spelled out completely within the password
    • The use of characters from the following groups:
      • Uppercase letters
      • Lowercase letters
      • Numbers
      • Special characters

147.

Which Registered Jack (RJ) connector has two wire pairs?

  • RJ-11

  • RJ-12

  • RJ-45

  • RJ-48c

Correct answer: RJ-11

RJ-11 connectors have two wire pairs.

RJ-12 has three pairs, and RJ-45 and RJ-48c have four pairs.

148.

An RJ45 modular plug has how many pins?

  • Eight

  • Six

  • Four

  • 16

Correct answer: Eight

An RJ45 modular plug has eight pins. Following the T565B standard, the wire colors are in this order:

  • Pin 1 - White/Orange
  • Pin 2 - Orange
  • Pin 3 - White/Green
  • Pin 4 - Blue
  • Pin 5 - White/Blue
  • Pin 6 - Green
  • Pin 7 - White/Brown
  • Pin 8 - Brown

149.

You are troubleshooting an issue using the Network+ troubleshooting methodology. You have tested a theory to determine probable cause and confirmed that your theory was, in fact, correct. What is the next step of the network troubleshooting methodology?

  • Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem

  • Implement a solution to resolve the problem

  • Document findings, actions, and outcomes

  • Share your theory with colleagues to validate it

Correct answer: Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem

Once you have tested a theory of probable cause and the theory is confirmed, the next step is establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem.

Implementing a solution and documenting findings, actions, and outcomes come later in the process.

Sharing your theory with others is not part of the network troubleshooting methodology.

The seven steps in the Network+ troubleshooting model are:

  • Identify the problem.
  • Establish a theory of probable cause.
  • Test the theory to determine cause.
  • Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects.
  • Implement the solution or escalate as necessary.
  • Verify full system functionality and implement preventative measures if applicable.
  • Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned throughout the process.

150.

The Administrative Distance (AD) indicates a routing protocol's trustworthiness. What is the default AD of the Intermediate System to Intermediate System (IS-IS) protocol?

  • 115

  • 110

  • 120

  • 170

Correct answer: 115

The Intermediate System to Intermediate System (IS-IS) protocol has a default AD of 115.

The Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) protocol has a default AD of 110. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) has a default AD of 120. External Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) has a default AD of 170.

151.

According to CompTIA, which of the following is the second step in the structured troubleshooting methodology?

  • Establish a theory of probable cause

  • Test the theory to determine cause

  • Implement the solution

  • Establish a plan of action

Correct answer: Establish a theory of probable cause

For the Network+ exam, the structured troubleshooting method consists of 7 steps:

  1. Identify the problem: Effective troubleshooting must begin with a clear problem definition and might include specific symptoms.
  2. Establish a theory of probable cause: This is the point where experience and intuition play a huge role because it is now time to brainstorm the potential cause.
  3. Test the theory to determine cause: Would the hypothesized cause lead to the observed symptoms? Do a sanity check.
  4. Establish a plan of action: With the theory confirmed, it's now time to determine what actions should be performed and how to ensure effective resolution.
  5. Implement the solution: Based on the plan of action, it might be appropriate to schedule the time that actions will take place to ensure minimal downtime.
  6. Verify the solution: Verify full system functionality and, if possible, implement preventative measures for the future.
  7. Document findings, action, outcomes, and lessons learned: Report the findings and action plan that led to the resolution to ensure that future issues of this kind, or similar ones, can be resolved quickly.

152.

You are in the process of setting up a new load balancer for your organization. You have set up and configured numerous servers to look like one server. What is the name used to describe this group of servers?

  • Server cluster

  • BIND DNS

  • Bonded servers

  • Proxy servers

Correct answer: Server cluster

A server cluster is a group of servers that look alike and are used to perform load balancing. Not only should the servers look alike, but it is imperative to ensure that all requests are distributed evenly throughout these servers so that a single server is not bogged down. Server clustering should be considered when designing networks for high availability and disaster recovery.

Berkeley Internet Name Domain (BIND) DNS is a type of DNS server. Bonded servers are not a thing. Proxy servers make requests on behalf of a client, providing improved privacy and security.

153.

Which of the following provides a link between a smart jack and customer premises equipment?

  • The demarc extension

  • The extended smart jack

  • The 110 block extension

  • A patch cable

Correct answer: The demarc extension

You will use the demarc extension for connecting the smart jack to the Customer-Premises Equipment (CPE). The demarc extension is the transition point between the service provider's and customer's systems.

While smart jacks are in the demarc, there is no such thing as an extended smart jack.

Similarly, 110 blocks are a wiring distribution point but don't have an "extension."

Patch cables are electrical or optical cables used to connect switches, hubs, etc.

154.

Of the following, which was traditionally used in corporate environments for cross-connecting phone system cabling, but does NOT support higher-speed Local Area Network (LAN) technologies such as 100 Mbps Ethernet networks?

  • 66 block

  • 110 block

  • 89 block

  • 14 block

Correct answer: 66 block

66 blocks were used for cross-connecting phone cabling, but high crosstalk made it unsuitable for 100 Mbps and above high-speed Local Area Network (LAN) networks.

The 110 block replaced the 66 block during the switch to high-speed LAN.

89 block and 14 block are both fabricated terms.

155.

Which regulation applies to the use of point-of-sale devices?

  • PCI DSS

  • HIPAA

  • GDPR

  • GLBA

Correct answer: PCI DSS

The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards (PCI DSS) governs debit and credit card transactions on point-of-sale devices such as card readers.

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) protects the private data of healthcare patients.

General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a data privacy law in the European Union (EU).

Gramm-Leach-Blily Act (GLBA) governs the use of customer data by providers of financial products and services.

156.

The Administrative Distance (AD) indicates a routing protocol's trustworthiness. What is the default AD of the Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?

  • 120

  • 115

  • 110

  • 90

Correct answer: 120

When there are multiple routing protocols present within a network, and the router receives more than one advertisement, it will go with the routing protocol that has the lower Administrative Distance (AD).

Routing Information Protocol (RIP) has a default AD of 120.

The Intermediate System to Intermediate System (IS-IS) protocol has a default AD of 115.

The Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) protocol has a default AD of 110.

Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) has a default AD of 90.

157.

You are interested in finding a tool that will help to prevent Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache poisoning. Which of the following can you use?

  • DAI

  • STP

  • HIPS

  • QoS

Correct answer: DAI

Cisco's Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) is a tool that can help prevent Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache poisoning attacks. DAI works by keeping track of ARP information and compiling a list of known good, identifiable IP addresses and Media Access Control (MAC) addresses.

The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) helps to eliminate network loops, not prevent ARP cache poisoning.

A Host-based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) detects and blocks attacks against an endpoint, not ARP cache poisoning.

Quality of Service (QoS) helps to optimize network performance for certain traffic types.

158.

Five workstations are connected to a Layer 2 switch, all within the same VLAN. This creates how many collision domains?

  • 5

  • 1

  • 3

  • 2

Correct answer: 5

Every interface on a switch is its own collision domain, so there are five collision domains.

The answers one, three, and two are incorrect. Each Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) has its own broadcast domain, so there would be one broadcast domain.

159.

Your client would like you to install five network devices at a workstation that has only a single available power receptacle. What else will you need to install?

  • PDU

  • UPS

  • NMS

  • WAP

Correct answer: PDU

If you are installing five separate network devices, each with its own power connection requirement, into a single receptacle, you will need a Power Distribution Unit (PDU). This can be as simple as a power strip with at least five receptacles or an intelligent module with a surge protector and remote management capabilities. PDUs can come in many different forms, such as rack-mount PDUs or cabinet PDUs.

A Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) provides battery backup power in case of a power outage.

A Network Monitoring System (NMS) detects network device outages and other failures.

A Wireless Access Point (WAP) connects Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) devices to a network.

160.

Which of the following is a publicly available database of known security vulnerabilities?

  • CVE

  • MITRE

  • NIST

  • STRIDE

Correct answer: CVE

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) is a publicly available database that lists known cybersecurity vulnerabilities in software, hardware, and firmware. It was published by the MITRE Corporation starting in 1999. Here is an example of a typical CVE:

CVE-2020-17084: Buffer Overflow in Microsoft Exchange Server

MITRE is the name of the non-profit organization that publishes CVE. It is also known for the MITRE ATT&CK framework, a method for understanding and defending against cyber threats.

The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) is a U.S. government agency that publishes a cybersecurity framework.

STRIDE is a model for dealing with security threats. The acronym stands for:

  • Spoofing
  • Tampering
  • Repudiation
  • Information disclosure (privacy breach or data leak)
  • Denial of service
  • Elevation of privilege
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