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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Exam Questions

Page 3 of 50

41.

Which of the following is a framework for creating effective information security management systems, including aspects such as risk assessment and management?

  • ISO 27001

  • HIPAA

  • GDPR

  • PCI DSS

Correct answer: ISO 27001

The ISO 27001 standard describes information security management systems. Information security management is broken into domains, including risk assessment and management.

  • Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA): HIPAA is a US regulation designed to ensure the privacy of protected health information (PHI). 
  • General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR): The GDPR is an EU regulation that protects the PII of European citizens. It implemented rules for protecting PII and provided certain rights for citizens. GDPR inspired many later rules such as the CCPA. 
  • Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS): PCI DSS was developed by the major credit card brands to ensure the protection of consumers' financial information and protect against financial fraud.

42.

An administrator is analyzing an X.509 certificate. They want to know the authority that assigned the certificate. Which attribute will give them this information?

  • Issuer

  • Subject alternative names

  • Serial number

  • Common name

Correct answer: Issuer

The issuer attribute shows the certificate authority that created the certificate. 

Subject alternative names show additional items protected by the certificate. The serial number differentiates certificates from others. The common name is the name associated with the public key.

43.

A security auditor is evaluating the risk of a proposed change that has come in the form of a change request. The auditor determines that the change introduces a great risk and that it should not be implemented. 

What is the term used when an organization decides not to carry out a proposed plan because the risk factor is too great?

  • Risk avoidance

  • Risk transference

  • Risk mitigation

  • Risk acceptance

Correct answer: Risk avoidance

Risk avoidance entails not carrying out a proposed plan because the risk factor is too great. For instance, a high-profile organization might decide not to implement a new and controversial website based on its belief that too many attackers would attempt to exploit it.

Risk transference involves having a third party take care of the risk. Risk mitigation is the process of applying controls to reduce the probability of a risk. Risk acceptance involves engaging in the risky endeavor without applying controls.

44.

Which regulation requires financial transparency from publicly traded U.S. companies?

  • SOX

  • GLBA

  • HIPAA

  • Privacy Act of 1974

Correct answer: SOX

The Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) Act governs the disclosure of financial and accounting information. It was enacted in 2002. It was passed following the scandals of Enron and WorldCom. SOX requires executives within an organization to take responsibility for the accuracy of financial reports.

The GLBA concerns privacy and security rules on financial institutions. HIPAA concerns health data. The Privacy Act of 1974 concerns the handling of PII.

45.

It is important to be familiar with tools used by security professionals and how they are used to improve an organization's security posture. This can improve performance or turnaround time. 

What is one common vulnerability scanner used by security experts?

  • Nessus

  • Visio

  • Nmap

  • LANsurveyor

Correct answer: Nessus

Nessus was originally developed for Unix, but security administrators can now get it for Windows and Linux. It helps administrators find security weaknesses before hackers do. With this knowledge, appropriate measures can be taken to enhance the security posture and improve the reliability of the systems.

Visio is used for network diagramming. Nmap is used for network scanning and discovery of open ports. LANsurveyor is used to map network infrastructure.

46.

An administrator is reviewing account policies. They want to be sure that all users' passwords are changed every month. Which criteria should they set to accomplish this?

  • Expiration

  • Reuse

  • Length

  • Complexity

Correct answer: Expiration

An expiration value makes sure that users change their password after a certain amount of time. If an attacker does get access to a password, this can also shorten the amount of time that a hacked password is usable.

Password reuse refers to a user selecting a previous password. Password length refers to the number of characters used for the password. Password complexity refers to requiring passwords with more than just letters.

47.

An organization's security operations center suddenly notices a surge in outgoing traffic from an internal workstation. What category of anomalous behavior recognition is being detected?

  • Unexpected

  • Unintentional

  • Risky

  • Accidental

Correct answer: Unexpected

Anomalous behavior recognition can be divided into risky, unexpected, or unintentional behavior. Unexpected behavior is behavior that falls outside of a normal baseline.

Unintentional, or accidental, anomalous behavior relates to activity occurring due to human error. Risky anomalous behavior includes actions that carry a higher risk than normal, such as visiting a site that allows free applications for downloading.

48.

An administrator is concerned about physical theft of devices in the workplace. What would be a good security solution to address this?

  • Lockdown cable

  • Clean desk policy

  • BitLocker

  • Cipher block chaining

Correct answer: Lockdown cable

A lockdown cable (or cable lock) can be attached to a reinforced cable lock port on laptops. This can help prevent physical theft of devices.

A clean desk policy is used to ensure sensitive information is not lying around. BitLocker is used to encrypt hard drives. Cipher block chaining is a mode of operation for block ciphers.

49.

Which of the following activities is characteristic of physical penetration testing?

  • Compromising surveillance systems

  • Exploiting vulnerabilities in a web application

  • Assessing policies related to employee security training

  • Simulating attacks on the network

Correct answer: Compromising surveillance systems

Physical penetration testing attempts to identify and exploit physical security controls. This may include breaking into buildings, bypassing access control systems, or compromising surveillance systems. 

Exploiting vulnerabilities in a web application and simulating attacks on the network are examples of offensive penetration testing. Assessing policies related to employee security training is an example of defensive penetration testing.

50.

A hotel chain decided that they wanted to force users to use their on-premises Wi-Fi and pay for it. To do so, they employed devices that were capable of committing denial-of-service attacks against customers' personal Wi-Fi access points.

Which of the following devices did they MOST likely use?

  • Jammer

  • Crimper

  • Captive portal

  • VPN

Correct answer: Jammer

Jammers can be used to interrupt a wireless signal. They can be purchased online to attack a wireless access point and initiate a denial of service. They create random noise on the Wi-Fi channel or attempt to disassociate clients from the device.

Crimpers are devices for attaching connectors to cables. A captive portal is a web page that gatekeeps internet access until a client performs certain actions. A VPN is an encrypted tunnel between two points on a network.

51.

Which of the following vectors exploits trust relationships with third parties?

  • Supply chain

  • Email

  • Social media

  • Removable media

Correct answer: Supply chain

Supply chain attacks exploit an organization via its relationships with suppliers, vendors, and other service providers.

Phishing attacks (including spear phishing, whaling, invoice scams, etc.) may use email or other messaging systems as a vector. Social media may be a vector used to collect information about a target and potentially to send them a malicious link. Removable media is a vector that can be used to attack air-gapped systems, which are physically disconnected from an outside network.

52.

An automation engineer is working with a security administrator at Acme Inc. to ensure that the embedded systems that are deployed are secure. Which of the following would NOT be a consideration for the security of an embedded system?

  • Encrypting the file store

  • Keeping the system up to date

  • Implementing an air-gapped network

  • Checking for issues with default configurations

Correct answer: Encrypting the file store

Embedded devices are items like multi-function printers, wireless cameras, or even smart TVs and refrigerators. While most individuals recognize that workstations and servers need to stay current with patches, embedded systems typically do not receive as much consideration. Both vendors and end users are unlikely to consider that the printer on the network might have a vulnerability, or that a wireless camera might be compromised and joined to a botnet. 

To secure embedded systems, ensure that the system is current and patched and potentially removed from public access networks and that any default settings are removed, such as default username and password combinations.

53.

A security analysis firm is interested in tracking down a group of government state-level hackers. This group of hackers only targets large corporations that work on government projects and wouldn't likely go after one honeypot. 

What is used when a single honeypot isn't enough to trap a hacker?

  • Honeynet

  • Botnet

  • Wireless access point

  • System on a chip

Correct answer: Honeynet

A honeypot is one individual server or workstation used to trap hackers and monitor their activity. A honeynet is a group of computers that work together as a network of honeypots. It's used when one honeypot is not enough.

A botnet is a network of compromised systems. A wireless access point is a Wi-Fi router. A system on a chip is an integrated circuit with all its required functionality on board.

54.

An attacker infiltrates a company's network in order to access sensitive information. Upon finding this sensitive information, they demand a payment from the company, or they will release the data publicly. 

What motivation does the threat actor have?

  • Blackmail

  • Political belief

  • Disruption

  • Espionage

Correct answer: Blackmail

Blackmail involves obtaining sensitive data from an individual or corporation. The attacker then extorts the target to not release the sensitive data publicly.

Political beliefs are characteristic of hacktivists. Disruption is a motivation for threat actors who just want to sow chaos. Espionage is a motivation for a company or nation-state that wants to learn secrets but not extort the target.

55.

Which of the following techniques is commonly used on receipts to conceal credit card numbers?

  • Data masking

  • Tokenization

  • Data minimization

  • Pseudo-anonymization

Correct answer: Data masking

An organization can use a few different privacy-enhancing technologies to protect sensitive data, including:

  • Data Minimization: Data minimization involves collecting and storing only sensitive data that the organization actually needs. This is the most effective method of protecting sensitive data because an organization can't breach/leak data it doesn't have.
  • Data Masking: Data masking involves replacing sensitive data with non-sensitive characters. For example, receipts commonly have all but the last four digits of a credit card number masked with asterisks/dots.
  • Tokenization: Tokenization replaces sensitive data with a non-sensitive token that can be used on systems that don't actually need the original data. A lookup table mapping tokens to data is kept to look up the original data when needed.
  • Anonymization: Anonymization totally removes personally identifiable information (PII) from a user's records. However, true anonymization is difficult to achieve since data may be deanonymized using external data sources.
  • Pseudo-Anonymization: Pseudo-anonymization is when PII is replaced by a random token.

56.

In user guidance and training, what advice should be given to users who receive USB cables through the mail?

  • They should not be used

  • They should attach the USB cables to their systems to test them

  • They should only be used with personal devices

  • They should only be used if necessary

Correct answer: They should not be used

USB cables or drives can be attack vectors. A USB cable may have malicious software embedded in it.

Attaching suspicious cables, using them with personal devices, or using them when needed should be avoided.

57.

A telephone services company has discovered that an attacker has been accessing their systems and viewing sensitive plans related to the release of a new product. What type of attacker motivation is driving the attacker?

  • Data exfiltration

  • Service disruption

  • Philosophical beliefs

  • Ethical

Correct answer: Data exfiltration

A data exfiltration attack is motivated by trying to steal sensitive information. This can include such items as business plans, customer data, or financial information.

An attacker motivated by service disruption will try to attack networks or servers. An attacker motivated by philosophical beliefs will try to make changes to promote a cause. An ethical hacker attempts to uncover vulnerabilities to improve security.

58.

A company's web server and mail server are connected to the same switch which is behind a firewall. What type of network are they in?

  • Screened subnet

  • WAN

  • Air-gapped network

  • Trusted network

Correct answer: Screened subnet

A screened subnet is a network that can accept requests from the public internet but is protected by a firewall. This is where a company hosts resources such as web, mail, and DNS servers.

A wide area network (WAN) is an external public network that covers a wide geographic area. An air-gapped network is physically isolated from other networks. A trusted network is internal and not accessible from the public internet.

59.

An online retailer allows users to post product reviews. The web developer forgets to sanitize the input from customers in those reviews, and users soon report that visiting review pages causes alerts from their antivirus programs. 

Which type of attack is likely occurring?

  • XSS

  • CSRF

  • Disassociation

  • SQL injection

Correct answer: XSS

Cross-site scripting (XSS) holes are vulnerabilities that can be exploited with a type of code injection. In an XSS attack, the attacker injects malicious scripts into a trusted website or web application. The malicious actor uses the website or web application to send malicious code, generally in the form of a browser-side script, to an unsuspecting user.

Cross-site request forgery (CSRF) involves tricking a user into performing an action on a site they are logged into. A disassociation attack is done in the context of wireless networking. An SQL injection attack targets the backend databases of an application.

60.

Which type of firewall provides features such as VPN, content filtering, and anti-spam?

  • UTM

  • Stateful

  • NGFW

  • Packet-filtering

Correct answer: UTM

A unified threat management (UTM) platform is an all-in-one network security solution that may include VPN, firewall, IPS, antivirus, antispam, and content filtering functionality.

A stateful firewall retains information about the current state of network connections. This enables it to identify packets that are out of sequence or invalid, such as a TCP SYN/ACK packet without a corresponding SYN. A next-generation firewall (NGFW) performs deep packet inspection (DPI), looks at the contents of packets, and integrates intrusion prevention system (IPS) functionality. A packet-filtering firewall is stateless, meaning that it stores no information about the current status of a network connection. It determines whether traffic can enter or leave the network based on the content of the packet headers.

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