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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

Firefighter I II Exam Questions

Page 1 of 50

1.

When leaning against a building, a ladder should be placed one-quarter of the vertical distance from the ground to the point of contact with the building to provide the optimal climbing angle. 

What is the optimal climbing angle?

  • 75°

  • 45°

  • 90°

  • 25°

Correct answer: 75°

The optimal climbing angle is 75°. If a firefighter places a ladder approximately one-quarter of the vertical distance from the ground to the point of contact with the building, it should be at a 75° angle.

The optimal climbing angle is 75°, not 25°, 45°, or 90°.

2.

Which sprinkler orientation is hidden under a removable decorative cover that releases when exposed to a specific level of heat?

  • Concealed sprinkler

  • Upright sprinkler

  • Pendant sprinkler

  • Sidewall sprinkler

Correct answer: Concealed sprinkler

A concealed sprinkler is hidden under a removable decorative cover that releases when exposed to a specific level of heat and deflects water downward once its removable decorative cover is released.

An upright sprinkler deflects water downward in a hemispherical pattern. A pendant sprinkler deflects water downward in a circular pattern of small water droplets. A sidewall sprinkler deflects water to one side.

3.

Fire hose loads may have extra sections of hose line attached to the end in special configurations to increase their versatility and efficiency. What fire hose finish consists of the last sections of the hose being loosely arranged on top of the hose load in a crisscross fashion across the hose bed?

  • Straight finish

  • Reverse horseshoe load

  • Flat load

  • Reverse finish

Correct answer: Straight finish

A straight finish moves the last few sections of the hose load back and forth across the top of the rest of the hose load on the apparatus. A hydrant wrench, gate valve, and adapters are sometimes strapped to the apparatus' tailboard for quick access.

A reverse horseshoe load is similar to a horseshoe load, except the horseshoe bend is located at the rear of the hose load instead of at the front of the hose compartment. Flat load is commonly used for supply hose laying the hose flat rather than on edge. This helps prevent damage from apparatus vibration during travel. 

Reverse finish is not a term used in the fire service.

4.

What factors make up the ignition sequence?

  • Competent ignition source, the material that first ignited, and the action that brought the two together

  • Competent ignition source, lack of oxygen, and fuel load

  • The material that first ignited and an oxygen-rich environment

  • The ignition source and the point of origin

Correct answer: Competent ignition source, the material that first ignited, and the action that brought the two together

To determine the fire cause, you must look for the competent ignition source, the material that first ignited, and the action that brought the two together, referred to as the ignition sequence.

5.

Which NFPA standard covers professional fire officer qualifications?

  • NFPA 1021

  • NFPA 1041

  • NFPA 1521

  • NFPA 1035

Correct answer: NFPA 1021

All fire department officers must meet the minimum requirements of NFPA 1021, Standard for Fire Officer Professional Qualifications. The officer types include a company officer capable or managing a fire company or multiple companies in a district or fire response area.

6.

Dispersion/engulf is the fourth stage of the General Emergency Behavior Model (GEBMO) that describes a hazardous material’s behavior at an incident. What are the common dispersion patterns?

  • Cloud, cone, hemispheric, plume, pool, stream, and irregular

  • Thermal, chemical, and mechanical

  • Disintegration, runaway cracking, attachments open or break, puncture, and split or tear

  • Detonation, violent rupture, rapid relief, and spill/leak

Correct answer: Cloud, cone, hemispheric, plume, pool, stream, and irregular

The common dispersion patterns are cloud, cone, hemispheric, plume, pool, stream, and irregular. Once the container’s contents have been released, they disperse and engulf the area.

The container stress types are thermal, chemical, and mechanical. The container breach types are disintegration, runaway cracking, attachments open or break, puncture, and split or tear. The container release types are detonation, violent rupture, rapid relief, and spill/leak.

7.

What type of WMD is ricin considered?

  • Biological toxin

  • Industrial chemical

  • Biological pathogen

  • Nuclear weapon

Correct answer: Biological toxin

Ricin is a biological toxin.

8.

Part of practicing proper air management when wearing a SCBA (self-contained breathing apparatus) is to understand how to react in an air emergency. 

What is the best practice if you encounter an air emergency?

  • Remain calm and follow procedures

  • Activate your PASS (personal alert safety system) device and find a window or door

  • Call MAYDAY and signal other firefighters with your flashlight

  • Practice a controlled breathing technique to extend the air supply

Correct answer: Remain calm and follow procedures

The best response to an air emergency is to remain calm and adhere to established procedures. Staying calm helps conserve air, and following protocols ensures that you manage the situation effectively and maintain communication with your team. It also helps other firefighters know your location and actions if you are sheltering in place or moving to safety.

Activating your PASS device and finding a window or door may be part of emergency procedures but is not typically the immediate first step in response to an air emergency. Following procedures and staying calm precedes activating additional safety devices.

Calling a MAYDAY is necessary if you are lost or trapped, but it should follow the steps of staying calm and following protocol. Waving a flashlight may help signal others but should not be relied upon as the primary action.

Practicing a controlled breathing technique, such as skip breathing, is a recognized method to conserve air. However, it is a secondary measure and should not replace the primary response of remaining calm and following procedures.

9.

Which of the following terms best identifies a well-thought-out course of events developed to address all phases of incident control within a specified time?

  • Incident Action Plan

  • Pre-plan

  • Organizational strategy

  • Incident time-line

Correct answer: Incident Action Plan

The Incident Action Plan (IAP) is critical to the effective and efficient response to a hazmat incident. The IAP specifies a timeframe in which the strategies and tactics are to be performed. It may not be necessary to draft a written IAP for every incident, but the incident commander should perform the basic preliminary planning for an IAP on all incidents, no matter the size.

Pre-plans are often done for specific sites or occupancies, but don't address the actual strategies and tactics that will be used to mitigate the situation. The pre-plan does not set specific time limits.

Organizational strategy, and incident time-line are not terms used in the fire service to describe the planning of the effective and efficient response to a hazmat incident.

10.

A dispatch center that is specific for the agency being operated is known as which of the following?

  • Emergency Service Specific Telecommunications Center

  • Public Safety Answering Point

  • Emergency Answering Service

  • Public Safety Telecommunication Center

Correct answer: Emergency Service Specific Telecommunications Center

An Emergency Service Specific Telecommunication Center is a dispatch center that is specific for the agency being operated. Fire departments, emergency medical services, and law enforcement agencies all may have their own dispatch center that handles calls specific to their department.

A location or facility that takes all emergency calls and routes the call to the appropriate dispatcher is known as a Public Safety Answering Point. 

Emergency Answering Service and Public Safety Telecommunication Center are incorrect options because they are not dispatch centers specific to the agency being operated.

11.

What term is used to describe the damage caused by firefighters during the actions taken to extinguish the fire?

  • Secondary damage

  • Primary damage

  • Principal damage

  • Tributary damage

Correct answer: Secondary damage

Secondary damage is the term used to describe the damage caused by firefighters during the actions taken to extinguish the fire. Forcible entry and ventilation are actions that create secondary damage.

Primary damage is the term used to describe the damage caused by the actual fire itself. Principal damage and tributary damage are not terms used to describe damage caused at fire scenes.

12.

Chemical energy is a source of thermal energy best described by which of the following?

  • Energy that occurs when a combustible fuel comes into contact with oxygen

  • Energy that occurs when friction or compression takes place

  • Energy that occurs when energy is transmitted using an electromagnetic wave

  • Energy that occurs when a current flows through a conductor

Correct answer: Energy that occurs when a combustible fuel comes into contact with oxygen

Chemical energy occurs when a combustible fuel comes into contact with oxygen.

Mechanical energy occurs when friction or compression takes place. Radiation energy occurs when energy is transmitted using an electromagnetic wave. Electrical energy occurs when a current flows through a conductor.

13.

You are on-scene with an eighteen-year-old who was injured when he fell on a broken glass bottle. He is conscious and alert with bright red, spurting blood coming from an approximately 4-inch long laceration on the medial aspect of the upper leg. What is the most likely source of the bleeding?

  • Arterial bleeding

  • Venous bleeding

  • Capillary bleeding

  • Arteriole bleeding

Correct answer: Arterial bleeding

Arterial bleeding occurs when the wall of the artery ruptures. Arterial bleeding coincides with each contraction of the heart and can be identified by the bright red spurting blood. Arterial bleeding is often difficult to control, patients may lose a significant amount of blood, and it is a true medical emergency. 

Veins contain blood that has been stripped of oxygen and is being pumped back to the lungs to be refreshed with oxygen. Therefore, a lacerated vein would cause dark red, flowing bleeding that is pretty easy to control with direct pressure. 

Capillary bleeding originates from minor scrapes or superficial lacerations. Blood from capillary bleeding appears as oozing and normally stops on its own after a few minutes. Arteriole bleeding is not identified as a type of bleeding associated with injuries; therefore, it cannot be an appropriate choice as an answer.

14.

Which of the following is not an application of tactical ventilation?

  • Hazardous materials removal

  • Life safety

  • Interior fire attack

  • Overhaul

Correct answer: Hazardous materials removal

Hazardous materials removal is not a primary application of tactical ventilation. Tactical ventilation is focused on controlling the spread of fire, improving visibility, and creating safer conditions for firefighters and victims. While ventilation can sometimes help mitigate the spread of hazardous materials, it is not its primary purpose in fireground operations, which require specialized hazardous materials teams and procedures.

Tactical ventilation enhances life safety by improving air quality and visibility, allowing safer conditions for both firefighters and victims. Coordinated with interior fire attack, it helps control fire spread and removes heat and smoke. During overhaul, ventilation continues to be useful in clearing residual smoke and heat, reducing further damage to the structure.

15.

An emergency responder is responding to a hazardous materials incident in which the atmospheric contaminants will not adversely affect exposed skin or be absorbed through any exposed skin. What level of personal protective clothing should the responder wear?

  • Level C

  • Level A

  • Level B

  • Level D

Correct answer: Level C

  • Level A personal protective clothing should be worn by the responder when a hazardous materials incident has a high potential for exposure to a gas or an unexpected vapor.
  • Level B personal protective clothing should be worn by the responder when a hazardous materials incident causes the atmosphere to contain less than 19.5 percent oxygen or more than 23.5 percent oxygen.
  • Level C personal protective clothing is composed of a splash-protecting garment and an air-purifying device. Level C personal protective clothing is worn when the atmosphere contains an oxygen percent between 19.5 and 23.5.
  • Level D personal protective clothing should be worn by the responder when a hazardous materials incident contains no atmospheric hazards.

16.

There are several common products of combustion that have toxic effects if a person is exposed to them for more than a few seconds. Which of the potentially toxic products is most likely to cause a collapse within 30 minutes or, in high concentrations, an immediate collapse and unconsciousness?

  • Carbon monoxide

  • Formaldehyde

  • Hydrogen cyanide

  • Nitrogen dioxide

Correct answer: Carbon monoxide

Carbon monoxide is a colorless, odorless gas that causes a headache, dizziness, weakness, confusion, nausea, and unconsciousness within thirty minutes of exposure if not removed from the area containing at least 0.2% carbon monoxide. Although, inhalation of high concentrations of carbon monoxide can cause an almost immediate collapse and unconsciousness.

Formaldehyde is a colorless gas with a pungent, irritating odor that can cause significant respiratory tract irritation and serious injury. Although breathing high levels of formaldehyde can cause cancer, it isn't likely to cause an immediate collapse and unconsciousness. Hydrogen cyanide is a product of combustion, but it isn't likely to cause an immediate collapse and unconsciousness. It is also a liquid caused by combustion, not a gas. It causes respiratory collapse by displacing the oxygen that would normally be used by the body. Nitrogen dioxide is a reddish-brown gas or a yellowish-brown liquid, caused by combustion of household building materials. It is highly toxic and corrosive, but it is not responsible for immediate collapse and unconsciousness during a fire.

17.

Due to the essential role of communications in safe and efficient operations on the fire ground, communications must be kept clear, precise and intelligible. In order to make sure that all communications are effective, most large fire departments have adopted the use of what kind of communication standard that uses plain English, rather than specific codes?

  • Clear text

  • Clear messaging

  • Straight text

  • Code free

Correct answer: Clear text

Clear text is a communication method that utilizes plain English over the traditional 10 codes associated with fire and law enforcement agencies. This has become especially important as larger incidents involve multiple agencies, all trying to communicate with one another. The use of department- or agency-specific codes can lead to confusion and often deadly mistakes.

Clear messaging, straight text, and code free are not used to describe this style of communication.

18.

Fire department personnel responsible for operating pumps and aerial devices on the scene of structure fires are required to meet the minimum requirements of which of the following standards of the National Fire Protection Association?

  • NFPA 1002

  • NFPA 1001

  • NFPA 472

  • NFPA 1521

Correct answer: NFPA 1002

NFPA 1002 sets the standards for fire apparatus driver's/operator's professional qualifications for the fire department. Personnel must meet minimum requirements in order to operate ariel devices and fire apparatus at the scene of structure fires, as well as while driving fire department equipment to and from the scene.

NFPA 1001 sets the standard qualifications for all professional firefighters. It doesn't set the standard for operating equipment such as aerial devices and ladders or other fire apparatus at the scene. 

NFPA 472 is the standard set forth for the minimum requirement for a hazardous material response. It doesn't set the standard for the safe operation of fire apparatus.

NFPA 1521 sets the minimum requirements for a fire department incident safety officer. It doesn't set the minimum requirements for fire personnel who operate fire apparatus and equipment on the emergency scene or during transit to or from the scene.

19.

What determines if the benefits of fire attack outweigh the risks to firefighters?

  • Risk-benefit analysis

  • Defensive choice

  • Personnel-accountability analysis

  • Scene size-up

Correct answer: Risk-benefit analysis

A risk-benefit analysis is the amount of risk to emergency responders versus a possible benefit. 

  • Offensive choice: Benefits of fire attack outweigh the risks to firefighters
  • Defensive choice: Offensive strategy would unnecessarily endanger the lives of firefighters because of hazardous conditions at the scene

20.

You arrive on the scene of an active class C fire at a local school. The school has been completely evacuated, even though the fire itself is contained to only one or two rooms. What should be the first action taken to suppress a class C fire?

  • Create a perimeter at a safe distance around the hazard

  • Reconfirm that all occupants/children are out of the building before suppressing the fire with water

  • Leave the power turned on and suppress the fire with a high-pressure carbon dioxide extinguisher

  • Immediately apply dry chemical or carbon dioxide fire extinguisher agents to the base of the fire while another rescuer finds and disconnects the power

Correct answer: Create a perimeter at a safe distance around the hazard

Class C fires involve energized electrical equipment. Firefighters often fail to realize the high potential for electrical shock or electrocution when responding and dealing with a class C fire. When faced with a Class C fire, there are two priorities.

  1. Creating a perimeter at a safe distance around the hazard.
  2. Contacting the authority with the proper training to turn off the electricity.

The question clearly states the occupants/children have been evacuated and accounted for; there is no reason to reconfirm the statement. It is important to cut the power prior to applying any fire suppression agents on an electrical fire. It would never be appropriate to attempt to suppress a fire involving electrical equipment without first de-energizing/cutting the power to the equipment. After the power has been disconnected, it is appropriate to use a low-pressure carbon dioxide extinguisher to suppress the fire. Again, it is never appropriate to apply any fire suppression agent to an electrical fire before the power is completely disconnected to the equipment. It is fine for another FF to locate and cut the power, as long as he uses a lock-out and informs you that all power is disconnected prior to applying any fire-suppression agent to the electrical equipment.

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