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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

FSBPT NPTE-PT Exam Questions

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1.

A physical therapist is performing an evaluation of a patient with low back pain and right lower extremity pain. During the physical exam, the therapist positions the patient supine and passively flexes the patient's right hip with their knee extended. During the test, the patient reports symptoms in their right leg, then the therapist lowers the patient's limb until symptoms subside.

Which of the following actions is MOST appropriate for the therapist to perform next?

  • Passively dorsiflex the patient's right ankle

  • Ask the patient to dorsiflex their right ankle

  • Passively flex the patient's right knee

  • Ask the patient to flex their right knee

Correct answer: Passively dorsiflex the patient's right ankle

The straight leg raise is used to identify dysfunction of neurological structures that supply the lower limb. This test is performed by positioning the patient supine with both legs resting on the table. In this position, the hip of the testing limb is passively flexed until symptoms are reported in the testing limb, then the limb is slightly lowered. Finally, the ankle of the testing limb is dorsiflexed.

The straight leg raise test is performed by passively dorsiflexing the patient's ankle, not actively dorsiflexing. Knee flexion is not a component of the straight leg raise test.

2.

A physical therapist is providing treatment to a patient with acute low back pain in an outpatient facility. During the subjective portion, the patient reports that they have been prescribed muscle relaxants by their physician. 

Which of the following side effects should the physical therapist expect?

  • Decreased alertness and ataxia

  • Acute liver shutdown

  • Physical dependence

  • Weight gain

Correct answer: Decreased alertness and ataxia

Commonly prescribed medications that a physical therapist commonly encounters in clinical practice include nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), muscle relaxants, nonnarcotic analgesics, narcotic analgesics, and corticosteroids. Muscle relaxants are commonly prescribed for muscle spasms. Common examples include cyclobenzaprine HCL, methocarbamol, and carisoprodol. Adverse side effects may include drowsiness, lethargy, ataxia, and decreased alertness.

Acute liver shutdown is a potential side effect of excessive acetaminophen use. Physical dependence is a common side effect of narcotic analgesic use. Weight gain is a potential side effect of short-term corticosteroid use.

3.

A physical therapist is providing treatment to a patient recovering from a spinal cord injury in a hospital. During the session, the therapist instructs the patient to perform a sit-to-stand transfer, ambulation across the room, and a small squat with counter support. The therapist then asks the patient to rest and perform the sequence again.

Which of the following BEST describes this form of practice?

  • Serial practice

  • Blocked practice

  • Variable practice

  • Random practice

Correct answer: Serial practice

Different forms of practice may be utilized in the process of motor learning. Six primary types of practice are as follows:

  • Blocked practice: practice of a single motor skill repeatedly 
  • Variable practice: practice of varied motor skills in which the performer is required to make rapid modifications of the skill in order to match the demands of the task
  • Random practice: practice of a group or class of motor skills in random order
  • Serial practice: practice of a group or class of motor skills in a serial or predictable order
  • Massed practice: relatively continuous practice with less rest time (i.e., rest time is less than practice time)
  • Distributed practice: practice with longer rest time (i.e., practice time is less than rest time)
  • Mental practice: cognitive rehearsal of a motor skill without overt physical performance

Because the patient is performing a group of motor skills in a predictable order, serial practice is the correct choice.

4.

You are a physical therapist in a subacute facility examining a patient with complaints of sacroiliac joint pain. How should the physical therapist BEST determine if sacroiliac joint dysfunction is influenced by a functional leg length discrepancy?

  • Long sitting test

  • Gillet’s test

  • Gaenslen's test

  • Goldthwait’s test

Correct answer: Long sitting test

The long sitting test is utilized by physical therapists to identify sacroiliac joint dysfunction that may be caused by a functional leg discrepancy. This test is performed by having the patient lie supine with aligned lower extremities, then assessing changes in the symmetry of the medial malleoli when the patient comes into a long sitting position. The long sitting test is deemed positive when limb lengths are reversed between sitting and supine positions.

Gillet’s test is performed in order to assess the posterior movement of a patient’s ilium in relation to the sacrum. Gaenslen's test is performed to identify SIJ dysfunction. Goldthwait’s test is performed in order to differentiate between sacroiliac joint dysfunction and lumbar spine dysfunction.

5.

You are a physical therapist treating a patient at high risk of falls. You evaluate his home for environmental risk factors and make a number of suggestions about ways he can modify his home environment and daily activities to decrease this risk.

Which of the following options would INCREASE this patient's risk of falling?

  • Wearing his prescribed multifocal glasses at all times

  • Using contrasting colors on flights of stairs

  • Installing bath bars both inside and outside the shower

  • Using nightlights

Correct answer: Wearing his prescribed multifocal glasses at all times

A patient's fall risk is increased by using multifocal glasses while walking and stair climbing, as these glasses can interfere with depth perception. This is true even if he has a prescription for multifocal lenses. Therefore, this patient should NOT wear these prescribed glasses at all times in order to reduce his risk of falling.

To reduce fall risk, the patient should use contrasting colors on flights of stairs, install bath bars both inside and outside the shower, use nightlights in the bedroom, bathroom, and hallways, and remove trip hazards, such as rugs.

6.

A physical therapist is providing treatment to a patient who experienced a stroke eight months ago. During the session, which of the following treatments is indicated for improving locomotion according to current clinical practice guidelines?

  • Moderate- to high-intensity over-ground ambulation

  • Circuit training

  • Robotic-assistance walking training

  • Body-weight-support treadmill training with PT assistance

Correct: Moderate- to high-intensity over-ground ambulation

Optimal interventions for patients recovering from severe neurological conditions vary depending on the patient's stage of recovery. According to the APTA Neurology Clinical Practice Guidelines, it is recommended to perform moderate- to high-intensity (>70% HR max) over-ground ambulation for patients who experienced a stroke 6 months ago or more. 

Circuit training may be considered for patients who experienced a stroke 6 months ago or more. Robotic-assistance walking training and body-weight-support treadmill training with PT assistance are not recommended for this patient population.

7.

Use the following scenario to answer this question.

Which of the following descriptions is MOST correct regarding the patient's cancer stage?

  • Tumor is locally advanced and may involve lymph nodes

  • Tumor is locally more advanced and has spread to lymph nodes

  • Tumor is localized and has not spread to lymph nodes

  • Tumor has metastasized or spread to other organs

Correct answer: Tumor is locally advanced and may involve lymph nodes

Cancer includes a broad group of diseases characterized by rapidly proliferating anaplastic cells. It is an invasive condition that can involve all organs of the body and has a mixed prognosis depending on the location and organs affected by the dysfunctional cells. Cancer is staged on a scale of 0 to IV. In stage II, the tumor is locally advanced (2 cm to 5 cm) and may or may not have lymph node involvement. Because the patient's cancer is described as stage II in this scenario, this is the best option provided.

With stage III cancer, the tumor is locally more advanced and has spread to lymph nodes. With stage I cancer, the tumor is localized and has not spread to lymph nodes. With stage IV cancer, the tumor has metastasized or spread to other organs throughout the body.

8.

You are working with a patient two days after a Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG) in an inpatient setting. During your session, the patient begins demonstrating a cough with sputum production, adventitious breath sounds, and tachypnea. You suspect a pulmonary embolism. Which is the MOST appropriate test for the patient in this situation?

  • Ventilation-perfusion scan

  • PET scan

  • Thoracentesis

  • Fluoroscopy

Correct answer: Ventilation-perfusion scan

A ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan is a radiographic test that is used to detect the presence of pulmonary emboli. The V/Q scan has the ability to match the lung’s ventilation pattern to the perfusion pattern. Given the patient's symptoms and your suspicion of a pulmonary embolism, this is the best option provided.

A PET scan uses a radioactive tracer during imaging that is often used to diagnose cancer. Thoracentesis is used to remove pleural fluid from the intrapleural space, which is used to diagnose fluid problems or remove excessive fluid. Fluoroscopy is a radiographic test used to observe diaphragmatic excursion.

9.

A physical therapist is working with a patient who has a past medical history including right and left total knee replacements and is being treated for left hip osteoarthritis pain. When discussing pain management strategies, the patient indicates that they cannot tolerate narcotic analgesics secondary to their addictive properties and history of overuse.

Which of the following medications IS appropriate for this patient?

  • Cyclobenzaprine HCl (Flexeril)

  • Hydrocodone (Norco, Vicodin)

  • Oxycodone (Oxycontin, Roxicodone)

  • Hydromorphone (Dilaudid)

Correct answer: Cyclobenzaprine HCl (Flexeril)

Cyclobenzaprine HCl (Flexeril) is a muscle relaxant commonly prescribed to reduce skeletal muscle tone. It is commonly used to treat skeletal muscle spasms.

Hydrocodone, oxycodone, and hydromorphone are all types of narcotic analgesics.

10.

Use the following scenario to answer the question.

Based on the patient's presentation, which of the following is the MOST appropriate recommendation for the physical therapist to make?

  • Communication with the physician

  • Continued physical activity and therapy as tolerated

  • Immediate medical attention

  • Education on weight management

Correct answer: Communication with the physician

Heart failure is a clinical syndrome in which the heart cannot maintain adequate blood circulation to meet the body's metabolic needs. Types include left-sided heart failure (congestive heart failure), right-sided heart failure, and biventricular failure. Color zones associated with clinical manifestations of heart failure may inform a physical therapist's recommendations for care. The yellow zone of care for patients with heart failure involves weight gain (2-3 pounds in 24 hours), increased coughing, peripheral edema, increased shortness of breath with activity, or orthopnea. Recommendations for the yellow zone include communication with the physician regarding medication adjustments or other forms of care. Since the patient presents with increased shortness of breath with activity, this is the most appropriate recommendation.

The green zone of care for patients with heart failure applies to patients with no shortness of breath, chest pain, or decreased activity level; the recommendation for this zone is continuing physical activity and therapy as tolerated. The red zone of care for patients with heart failure applies to patients with shortness of breath at rest, unrelieved chest pain, weight gain (5 pounds in 3 days), or confusion; the recommendation for this zone is immediate medical attention. Patient education on weight management may be recommended for this patient but would not be the priority over communicating with the physician.

11.

A therapist is working with a patient who has a BMI of 40. During the session, the therapist educates the patient on the importance of exercise for maintaining a healthy weight. Of the following options, which is LEAST likely to be true of this patient?

  • They exhibit altered biomechanics, primarily affecting the head and neck.

  • They have an increased risk of orthopedic injury.

  • They have an increased risk of skin breakdown.

  • They have a decreased tolerance to heat.

Correct answer: They exhibit altered biomechanics, primarily affecting the head and neck.

A patient with a very high Body Mass Index (BMI) may be considered overweight or obese. While it is possible for any patient to exhibit altered biomechanics of the head and neck, the other options are more likely in this example.

Patients who are overweight have an increased risk of orthopedic injury. They also have an increased risk of skin breakdown due to shear forces. They have a decreased tolerance to heat and are at risk of hyperthermia and heat exhaustion.

12.

A physical therapist is performing an evaluation on a patient in an outpatient facility for persistent lower extremity pain. As part of the examination, the physical therapist places the patient on a stationary bike and has them ride the bike sitting erect. Immediately after, the therapist has the patient ride the bike in a slumped position.

What is the MOST likely purpose of this test?

  • To differentiate between intermittent claudication and spinal stenosis

  • To test for a herniated nucleus pulposis

  • To assess neural tension

  • To measure the mobility of the lumbar spine

Correct answer: To differentiate between intermittent claudication and spinal stenosis

The bicycle test (van Gelderen's test) is used to differentiate between intermittent claudication and spinal stenosis. This test is performed by having a patient ride a stationary bike while sitting upright for a set period of time or distance, followed by a period of riding the bike in a slumped position. If pain is related to spinal stenosis, the patient should be able to ride the bike longer while slumped.

The crossed straight leg raise test can be used to identify a herniated nucleus puplosis or neural tension/radiculopathy. The Schober test is used to measure the mobility of the lumbar spine and is done by marking points at the patient's lumbosacral region.

13.

Use the following scenario to answer this question.

Based on the patient's physical therapy examination, which of the following cranial nerves is MOST likely affected?

  • CN V

  • CN I

  • CN II

  • CN VII

Correct answer: CN V

Cranial nerves can be assessed using a series of tests that evaluate for deficits in functions of the cranial nerves, each with a different protocol and expected result. The sensory component of cranial nerve V (trigeminal) is tested by applying light touch sensation along the patient's forehead, cheeks, and jaw with their eyes closed. If the patient is unable to identify the sensations, the involvement of CN V is suspected.

CN I is associated with the sense of smell. CN II is associated with the sense of vision. CN VII is associated with facial expression and taste of the anterior tongue.

14.

A physical therapist is seeing a patient in an outpatient clinic for a follow-up appointment. At the beginning of the session, the patient indicates new onset of knee tightness and restricted range of motion. The therapist decides to assess the end-feel of the patient's knee joint for the motion of knee flexion. The end-feel is boggy.

Which of the following does this MOST likely indicate?

  • Edema

  • Hypermobility

  • Fibrosis of soft tissues

  • Muscle spasm

Correct answer: Edema

A boggy end-feel is pathologic. It is indicative of edema or joint swelling. This may be expected after a patient has had knee surgery, although it may occur at any point due to new onset of joint swelling.

Hypermobility is indicated by an end-feel that occurs at a later time than on the opposite side. A firm end-feel with decreased elasticity indicates fibrosis of soft tissues. A rubbery end-feel indicates muscle spasm.

15.

Use the following scenario to answer the question.

Which of the following should the physical therapist be MOST concerned with based on the patient's lab values?

  • Bleeding risk

  • Tachycardia

  • Loss of consciousness

  • Shock

Correct answer: Bleeding risk

A complete blood cell count (CBC) is a laboratory test used to assess the status of a patient's blood, including white blood cell count, red blood cell count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, hematocrit, hemoglobin, and platelet count. The normal range for platelet count is 150,000-400,000 cells/mm3, and the patient's current value is 50,000 cells/mm3. A low platelet count increases the risk of bleeding, and activity should be adjusted according to platelet count. 

Tachycardia is associated with decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit. Fainting or loss of consciousness may occur with severe anemia. Shock may be a cause of increased hematocrit or hemoglobin.

16.

You are a physical therapist in an outpatient clinic evaluating a new patient. This patient presents with symptoms consistent with inflammatory bowel disease, however, you know of a musculoskeletal condition that IBD can be confused with.

Which is the MOST LIKELY musculoskeletal condition that IBD might be confused with?

  • Lumbar dysfunction

  • Shoulder impingement

  • Weight gain

  • Hip OA

Correct answer: Lumbar dysfunction

IBD may cause an individual to experience lower back pain. Therefore, it can present as a musculoskeletal disorder of lumbar dysfunction. The physical therapist should have a clear understanding of visceral problems that can present as musculoskeletal disorders for differential diagnoses.

This condition may cause weight loss, not weight gain. Hip OA will typically present with pain and stiffness within the hip joint/groin area, gradual loss of hip range of motion, and hip weakness. Shoulder impingement would present with pain either in the anterior or posterior aspect of the joint with overhead movements.

17.

A physical therapist is working with a veteran soldier who was injured during combat, with the goal of improving independence with bed mobility and transfers. The patient has undergone a hemicorporectomy.

Which of the following BEST describes this type of amputation?

  • An amputation in which both lower limbs are amputated along with the pelvis below the L4, L5 level

  • An amputation of the entire lower limb with a preserved pelvis

  • An amputation of the entire lower limb with the lower half of the pelvis resected

  • An amputation above the knee, preserving <35% of the femur

Correct answer: An amputation in which both lower limbs are amputated along with the pelvis below the L4, L5 level

A hemicorporectomy is an amputation in which both lower limbs are amputated along with the pelvis below the L4, L5 level.

A hip disarticulation is an amputation of the entire lower limb with a preserved pelvis. A hemipelvectomy is an amputation of the entire lower limb with the lower half of the pelvis resected. A short transfemoral amputation is an amputation above the knee that preserves <35% of the femur.

18.

A physical therapist is preparing to treat a patient in an outpatient cardiac rehabilitation facility. Following the subjective portion, the therapist ends the session early because they believe treatment is contraindicated.

Which of the following did the patient MOST likely report to the therapist?

  • Unstable angina

  • Mild left hip pain

  • Resting systolic blood pressure of 150 mm Hg

  • Mild dehydration

Correct answer: Unstable angina

Inpatient and outpatient cardiac rehabilitation may be contraindicated in the presence of certain test results, signs, or symptoms. Some contraindications for cardiac rehabilitation include unstable angina, a resting systolic blood pressure of >200 mm Hg or a diastolic blood pressure >110 mm Hg,  acute systemic illness or fever, severe orthopedic conditions that prohibit exercise, and other metabolic conditions such as hypo or hyperkalemia.

Although severe orthopedic conditions may contraindicate cardiac rehabilitation, mild left hip pain does not meet these criteria. A resting systolic blood pressure of 150 mm Hg is below the contraindicated threshold of 200 mm Hg. While mild dehydration could indicate potential electrolyte imbalance, there is not enough information provided to determine whether this is the result of hypokalemia or hyperkalemia.

19.

Use the following scenario to answer this question.

Which of the following is MOST likely to be a contraindication to using thermotherapy for this patient's upper extremity pain?

  • Hemorrhaging risk

  • Raynaud's disease

  • Cryoglobulinemia

  • Compromised circulation

Correct answer: Hemorrhaging risk

Various modalities such as cryotherapy, thermotherapy, hydrotherapy, electrical stimulation, and ultrasound may be used to help patients manage symptoms and facilitate recovery. Cryotherapy is indicated for inflammation or pain, acute edema, muscle guarding or spasticity, and muscle facilitation. Thermotherapy is likely useful for managing this patient's shoulder symptoms, although the patient must be screened for potential contraindications prior to use. Contraindications for thermotherapy use include hemorrhaging risk, deep vein thrombosis, impaired sensation, pregnancy, thrombophlebitis, and malignant tumors.

Raynaud's disease, cryoglobulinemia, and compromised circulation are contraindications for the use of cryotherapy.

20.

You are a physical therapist treating a patient who had a stroke approximately six months ago. You read the patient's chart and learn that the primary auditory cortex is damaged.

Which of the following functions do you expect to be affected?

  • To receive and process auditory stimuli

  • To process auditory stimuli

  • To comprehend language

  • To receive auditory stimuli

Correct answer: To receive and process auditory stimuli

The primary auditory cortex is responsible for both receiving and processing auditory stimuli.

The associative auditory cortex is responsible for processing, but not receiving, auditory stimuli. Wernicke's area is primarily responsible for language comprehension.

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