×

Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

FSBPT NPTE-PT Exam Questions

Page 10 of 61

181.

A physical therapist is performing an evaluation on a weightlifter with shoulder pain in an outpatient clinic. As part of the physical exam, the therapist performs the Yergason test. Which of the following options would MOST likely indicate a positive result?

  • Pain in the long head of the biceps tendon

  • Pain in the short head of the biceps tendon

  • Pain in the anterior shoulder

  • A clicking or catching sensation

Correct answer: Pain in the long head of the biceps tendon

The Yergason test is used to test the integrity of the transverse ligament and to identify bicipital tendinosis/tendinopathy and SLAP lesions. A positive result occurs when the tendon of the biceps long head "pops" out of the groove. This test may also reproduce pain in the long head of the biceps tendon.

Pain in the short head of the biceps tendon does not constitute a positive result of the Yergason test. Pain in the anterior shoulder is a positive result of Speed's test. A clicking or catching sensation is a positive result of the compression-rotation test.

182.

A physical therapist is conducting an evaluation on a 65-year-old female patient in a skilled nursing facility. During the evaluation, the patient reports that she has been experiencing hand pain and decreased tolerance for cold in her hands.

Of the following options, which is the BEST test for the therapist to perform?

  • Modified Allen test

  • Bunnel-Littler test

  • Phalen's test

  • Eichhoff's test

Correct answer: Modified Allen test

The modified Allen test is a special wrist and hand test that assesses vascular compromise. It is performed by first identifying the radial and ulnar arteries at the wrist, then having the patient open/close their fingers quickly several times, and then making a closed fist. Then the therapist compresses the ulnar artery and has the patient open their hand. The therapist releases compression on the artery and observes for vascular filling, and then performs the same procedure with the radial artery. A positive finding of abnormal filling of blood within the hand indicates vascular compromise.

The Bunnel-Littler test identifies intrinsic tightness at the PIP joints. Phalen's test assesses carpal tunnel compression of the median nerve. Eichhoff's test identifies De Quervain's tenosynovitis.

183.

A physical therapist is providing treatment to a 65-year-old female patient with a history of hypertension, osteoporosis, and COPD. During the session, the patient complains of severe proximal thigh pain and becomes unable to bear weight through her lower extremity. The therapist decides to end the session and contact the patient's physician.

Which condition is the therapist's MOST likely concern?

  • Femoral neck fracture

  • Sacroiliac joint dysfunction

  • Patellar fracture

  • Hip osteoarthritis

Correct answer: Femoral neck fracture

Osteoporosis is a metabolic disease that depletes bone mineral density and mass, increasing the likelihood of bone fracture. Common sites of fractures include the thoracic and lumbar spine, femoral neck, proximal humerus, proximal tibia, pelvis, and distal radius. Based on the patient's sudden inability to bear weight and reports of proximal thigh pain, a femoral neck fracture is the most likely option provided.

Sacroiliac joint dysfunction is not as likely to be the cause of the patient's symptoms given the presentation and history of osteoporosis. Patellar fractures may occur in patients with osteoporosis, but this site does not align with the site of the patient's symptoms. Osteoarthritis may contribute to hip pain but is not likely to be the cause of the patient's presentation in this scenario.

184.

A physical therapist is performing an evaluation on a patient with new onset of neck and shoulder pain. During the physical exam, the therapist performs the distraction test on the patient's cervical spine.

What test result would MOST indicate that the patient has a facet condition?

  • Decrease in symptoms in the neck

  • Decrease in upper limb pain

  • "Electrical" pain down the spine

  • Pain and paresthesia in the involved dermatomal pattern

Correct answer: Decrease in symptoms in the neck

The distraction test indicates compression of neural structures at the intervertebral foramen or facet joint dysfunction. To perform the distraction test, the patient should be in a sitting position with the head passively distracted. This test is deemed positive if the patient experiences a decrease in neck or upper limb pain during the test. If there is a decrease in symptoms in the neck, the patient likely has a facet condition. If there is a decrease in upper limb pain, the patient likely has a neurological condition.

Lhermitte's sign is the presence of "electrical" pain down the spine and into the upper or lower limbs; this indicates a dysfunction of the spinal cord and/or an upper motor neuron lesion. The foraminal compression test is positive if the patient experiences pain and paresthesia in the involved dermatomal pattern.

185.

You are performing a physical therapy evaluation on a female patient in a subacute rehabilitation facility. During the evaluation, you observe excessive symmetrical swelling of the patient's extremities and a negative Stemmer's sign. The patient's chart indicates no history of lymphedema or test results indicating pathology of the lymphatic system.

Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation for these findings?

  • Lipedema

  • Lymphangitis

  • Lymphedema

  • Deep vein thrombophlebitis

Correct answer: Lipedema 

Lipedema describes excessive subcutaneous fat deposition that is similar to lymphedema. This pathology can occur in the absence of lymphatic system pathology with a negative Stemmer's sign. Based on the information provided, this is the most likely explanation.

Lymphangitis describes an acute bacterial infection or viral infection that spreads throughout the lymphatic system, which is often identified with red streaks proximal to the infection site. Based on the information provided, the patient does not have a history of lymphedema and presents with a negative Stemmer's sign. Deep vein thrombophlebitis can be indicated by inflammation with tenderness to palpation, dull aching, and tightness of the calf.

186.

A physical therapist is providing gait training to a 75-year-old male patient in a skilled nursing facility. During the session, the patient experiences ventricular arrhythmia.

Which of the following arrhythmias MOST likely indicates an emergency situation?

  • Ventricular fibrillation

  • Premature ventricular contractions

  • Non-sustained ventricular tachycardia

  • Atrial fibrillation

Correct answer: Ventricular fibrillation

Ventricular fibrillation is a pulseless, emergency situation requiring emergency medical treatment including cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), defibrillation, and medication. It is characterized by chaotic activity of ventricles originating from multiple foci.

Premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) are premature beats arising from the ventricle. PVCs occur occasionally in the normal population and are considered serious if they occur more than six times per minute. Non-sustained ventricular tachycardia is a run of four or more consecutive beats in duration, terminating spontaneously in under 30 seconds. Atrial fibrillation is not an example of ventricular arrhythmia.

187.

A physical therapist is providing treatment to a patient in a hospital who is recovering from a stroke. During the session, the patient begins demonstrating episodic changes in behavior with complex hallucinations, automatisms, and unprompted sexual arousal. 

What is the MOST likely concern at this time?

  • Temporal lobe seizure

  • Grand mal seizure

  • New stroke

  • CN VI dysfunction

Correct answer: Temporal lobe seizure

Seizures are a disorder characterized by altered consciousness, motor activity, sensory phenomena, autonomic phenomena, and cognitive phenomena. A temporal lobe seizure is a type of partial seizure that is characterized by episodic changes in behavior, complex hallucinations, automatisms (lip smacking, chewing, tugging on clothing), and alternative cognition and emotional function (sexual arousal, depression, violent behavior). 

Grand mal seizure is a generalized seizure that involves all areas of the cortex and is characterized by a dramatic loss of consciousness. A new stroke may be indicated by the FAST assessment (facial drooping, arm elevation, and speech difficulty), which is distinct from the patient's presentation in this scenario. CN VI is involved in eye movement and is likely not involved in the patient's current presentation.

188.

A physical therapist is providing treatment to a patient who has suffered a stroke in a subacute rehabilitation facility. If the patient experienced a lesion to the left side of their brain, on which side of their body should the therapist anticipate weakness or paralysis?

  • Right side

  • Left side

  • Both sides

  • Neither side

Correct answer: Right side

Hemiplegia refers to contralateral weakness or paralysis, and it is a common condition that occurs following a stroke. Because the patient experienced a lesion to the left side of their brain, it is likely that they will experience right-sided hemiplegia.

Hemiplegia following a stroke is contralateral to the side of the lesion, not ipsilateral. Weakness or paralysis on both sides of the body would not be as likely as contralateral symptoms following a unilateral stroke. Although it is possible for a patient to experience a stroke without significant resulting hemiplegia, it is likely to occur.

189.

A physical therapist is reviewing recent lab results on a patient's medical chart prior to an evaluation. In the patient's chart, recent A1C testing results indicate a value of 4.9%.

What do these findings BEST indicate?

  • Normal average blood glucose

  • Prediabetes

  • Diabetes

  • Above average blood glucose

Correct answer: Normal average blood glucose

An A1C test measures average blood glucose for the past 203 months. An A1C test should be 5.6% or less for a normal adult. An A1C of 5.7-6.4% qualifies as pre-diabetes. An A1C of 6.5% or higher indicates diabetes. The term "above average" is not commonly used when describing A1C test results.

190.

A physical therapist is preparing to see a patient in a subacute facility for gait training and strengthening exercise. During the chart review, the therapist notes that the patient has undergone both medial and lateral meniscectomy procedures for their left knee.

Which of the following is the MOST likely given this information?

  • The patient will have a more shallow tibial fossa

  • The patient will have a lower pain tolerance

  • The patient will experience fatigue more easily

  • The patient will have a more stable tibiofemoral joint

Correct answer: The patient will have a more shallow tibial fossa

The menisci have many functions, which include the following:

  • Deepening the tibial fossa
  • Increasing congruency of the tibia and femur
  • Providing stability to the tibiofemoral joint
  • Providing shock absorption and lubrication to the knee
  • Reducing friction during movement
  • Improving weight distribution

Given that this patient has had both menisci removed from their knee, it is likely that they will have a shallower tibial fossa. This patient will also be more likely to have a less stable tibiofemoral joint, not a more stable joint.

191.

A physical therapist is providing treatment to a 45-year-old male patient in the hospital who has stage III colon cancer and cancer-related fatigue. During the session, what aerobic exercise parameters will be MOST appropriate?

  • 30 minutes at moderate intensity

  • 60 minutes at moderate intensity

  • 30 minutes at high intensity

  • 60 minutes at high intensity

Correct answer: 30 minutes at moderate intensity

Aerobic exercise prescriptions should be individualized according to the patient's condition and current status. For patients with a current or past history of cancer, the following aerobic prescription guidelines should be followed:

  • For patients with cancer-related fatigue: 30-minute sessions at moderate intensity, 3 times per week
  • For patients with the goal of improving health-related quality of life: 30- to 60-minute sessions at moderate to vigorous intensity
  • For patients with the goal of improving physical function, anxiety, and depression: 30- to 60-minute sessions at moderate to vigorous activity
  • For patients with the goal of improving sleep: 30- to 40-minute sessions at moderate intensity

192.

You are performing a physical therapy evaluation on a 42-year-old female patient with morbid obesity in an outpatient clinic. During the subjective interview, the patient reports that they have always struggled with managing a healthy weight and have experienced several health conditions as a result of their obesity.

Which of the following comorbidities is the patient LEAST likely to report?

  • Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)

  • Gallbladder disease

  • Menstrual irregularities

  • Type II diabetes

Correct answer: Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)

Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS) is a condition characterized by abnormally increased motility of the intestines. It is associated with emotional stress and the ingestion of certain foods. It is not a direct result of obesity.

Obesity is highly associated with gallbladder disease, menstrual irregularities, and type II diabetes.

193.

A physical therapist has been working with a patient in an outpatient clinic for one month to address left hip pain. Over the last few sessions, the patient has reported new pain in their lower back, pelvis, and sacrum. Given the patient's prior history of colon cancer, the physical therapist immediately contacts the patient's physician and recommends medical evaluation. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for doing this?

  • Visceral referred pain from the patient's colon

  • Visceral referred pain from the esophagus

  • Visceral referred pain from the gallbladder

  • This pain pattern is typically present with left hip pain

Correct answer: Visceral referred pain from the patient's colon

Visceral referred pain from the appendix, colon, or pelvic viscera can refer to the lower back, pelvis, or sacrum. Given the patient's history of colon cancer, this is a very good reason for contacting their physician.

Visceral pain from the esophagus can refer to the mid-back. Visceral pain from the diaphragm or pericardium can refer to the shoulder. Visceral pain from the gallbladder, pancreas, small intestine, or stomach can refer to the scapular and mid-back regions. A combination of low back pain, sacral pain, and pelvic pain is not typically combined with hip pain.

194.

You are conducting a physical therapy evaluation for a patient who is experiencing right medial knee pain. During the subjective portion, the patient reports that their injury occurred while their right foot was planted on the ground and their right hip was abducted when a bookshelf fell onto the lateral portion of their right knee.

Based only on this information, what is the MOST likely affected structure?

  • Medial Collateral Ligament (MCL)

  • Lateral Collateral Ligament (LCL)

  • Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL)

  • Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL)

Correct answer: Medial Collateral Ligament (MCL)

The MCL prevents external rotation and provides solidity against valgus forces. Based on the patient's report, it is likely that they experienced a knee injury due to a valgus force.

The LCL provides solidity against varus forces. A varus force would push the knee outwards, not inwards. It prevents external rotation of the tibiofemoral and patellofemoral joints. The ACL limits the internal rotation of the tibia during flexion and provides rotational stability. The PCL checks the posterior displacement of the tibia on the femur.

195.

A physical therapist is conducting an evaluation on a patient who experienced a shoulder injury during a motor vehicle accident. During the physical exam, the therapist observes that the patient is unable to flex their fully extended arm and demonstrates scapular winging at 90 degrees of flexion.

Based on this information, which nerve is MOST likely to be involved?

  • Long thoracic nerve

  • Suprascapular nerve

  • Axillary nerve

  • Ulnar nerve

Correct answer: Long thoracic nerve

The long thoracic nerve is most likely involved when an individual has the inability to flex a fully extended arm or experiences winging that starts at 90-degree forward flexion. The long thoracic nerve may also be involved if the individual experiences pain when flexing a fully extended arm.

The suprascapular nerve is most likely involved when an individual experiences increased pain with forward shoulder flexion or shoulder weakness. The axillary nerve is most likely involved when an individual has the inability to abduct their arm with neutral rotation. The ulnar nerve is involved in actions of the forearm and hand, including (but not limited to) wrist ulnar flexion and DIP flexion of the 4th and 5th digits.

196.

You are a physical therapist treating a woman in her 34th week of pregnancy for low back and pelvic pain.

Which of the following suggestions is MOST appropriate?

  • Education on proper body mechanics

  • Education on the use of a soft mattress

  • Education on increasing exercise levels and decreasing sedentary activities

  • High-intensity lumbar stretching and strengthening exercises

Correct answer: Education on proper body mechanics

A pregnant patient who is suffering from lower back and pelvic pain can best benefit from education on proper body mechanics.

The therapist can also suggest a firm mattress instead of using a soft one, and that the patient balance rest and activity. Low-intensity (not high-intensity) lumbar stretching and strengthening exercises may be indicated.

197.

Physical therapy has been ordered for a 60-year-old female recently admitted for poor activity tolerance and irregular heart sounds. While reviewing the patient's medical record, it is seen that recent echocardiogram results indicate backflow of blood into the left atrium during ventricular systole. Given this information, which heart structure is MOST likely affected?

  • Bicuspid valve

  • Tricuspid valve

  • Pulmonary valve

  • Aortic valve

Correct answer: Bicuspid valve

The bicuspid valve, also called the mitral valve, is responsible for preventing backflow of blood into the left atrium during ventricular systole. Given the patient's recent echocardiogram findings, this is the structure most likely affected.

The tricuspid valve prevents backflow of blood into the right atrium during ventricular systole. There are two semilunar valves: the aortic valve and the pulmonary valve. These valves prevent the backflow of blood from the aorta and the pulmonary arteries to the ventricles of the heart.

198.

Use the following scenario to answer this question.

Which of the following descriptions is MOST correct regarding the patient's cancer grade?

  • Grade II

  • Grade I

  • Grade III

  • Grade IV

Correct answer: Grade II

Cancer includes a broad group of diseases characterized by rapidly proliferating anaplastic cells. It is an invasive condition that can involve all organs of the body and has a mixed prognosis depending on the location and organs affected by the dysfunctional cells. Cancer is graded on a scale of I to IV. With grade II (intermediate-grade) cancer, cancer cells look more abnormal (moderately differentiated) and are slightly faster growing. Because this is most consistent with the patient's recent biopsy, it is the best option provided.

Grade I (low-grade) cancer is characterized by cancer cells resembling normal cells that are slow-growing. Grade III (high-grade) cancer is characterized by abnormal (poorly differentiated) cells that are growing and spreading more aggressively. Grade IV (high-grade) cancer is characterized by abnormal or undifferentiated cells.

199.

Use the following scenario to answer the question.

Which of the following forms of debridement is MOST appropriate for the patient's pressure injury?

  • Enzymatic

  • Mechanical

  • Sharp

  • Biological

Correct answer: Enzymatic

Pressure injuries are lesions caused by unrelieved pressure resulting in ischemic hypoxia and damage to underlying tissue. Pressure injuries are most commonly associated with prolonged pressure or shear forces and generally affect those who are immobilized. There are various methods used for debridement of wounds, including autolytic, enzymatic, mechanical, sharp, surgical, ultrasound, and biological. Enzymatic debridement is appropriate for individuals with moist necrotic wounds. 

Mechanical debridement is most often used to remove foreign materials or contaminated tissue. Sharp debridement is most indicated for the excision of leathery eschar. Biological debridement is rarely used due to the psychological stress it causes for patients.

200.

A physical therapist is providing treatment to a patient who is recovering from a cerebellar lesion following a TBI. During the session, which of the following interventions is MOST appropriate?

  • Eye-head coordination exercise

  • Strength training with weight machines

  • Soft tissue mobilization of the cervical spine

  • Education regarding the physiology of dysmetria

Correct answer: Eye-head coordination exercise

Treatment for cerebellar lesions should focus on improving a patient's limb movement accuracy, improving postural stability and control, improving functional mobility and safety, and stabilizing the vestibulo-ocular reflex. Eye-head coordination exercises may include (a) slow head movements with visual fixation or (b) active eye and head movements to improve coordination between head and eye movement.

Strength training with weight machines is not a primary focus of treatment for patients with cerebellar lesions. Soft tissue mobilization of the cervical spine is not a recommended treatment for this patient population. Education regarding the physiology of cerebellar dysfunction such as dysmetria may not be beneficial to a patient and is not recommended relative to other educational topics such as energy conservation techniques.

×