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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

FSBPT NPTE-PT Exam Questions

Page 6 of 61

101.

A physical therapist is providing treatment to a patient who has postpolio syndrome. Currently, the patient is experiencing severe paresis. Which of the following exercise guidelines is MOST appropriate at this time?

  • No muscle training

  • Moderate resistance training

  • Submaximal endurance training

  • Maximal resistance training

Correct answer: No muscle training

Postpolio syndrome refers to slow progressive muscle weakness in individuals with a confirmed history of acute polio. Preserving or increasing muscle strength is important in the treatment of patients with postpolio syndrome and should be provided according to the patient's current status. For patients with severe paresis, muscle training should be avoided to prevent complications.

Moderate resistance training is recommended for patients with postpolio syndrome who have near-normal muscle strength and no signs of motor unit remodeling on EMG. Submaximal endurance training is recommended for patients with postpolio syndrome who have moderate paresis and signs of motor unit remodeling on EMG. Maximal resistance training is not recommended for patients with postpolio syndrome.

102.

You are a physical therapist performing gait analysis on a 50-year-old male patient in an outpatient facility. During the analysis, you observe the patient's knee flexion range of motion. Which of the following measurements would be considered normal?

  • 15 degrees of knee flexion

  • 10 degrees of knee flexion

  • 30 degrees of knee flexion

  • 0 degrees of knee flexion

Correct answer: 15 degrees of knee flexion

The biomechanics of the knee, hip, and ankle can be measured during gait to assess for discrepancies in movement patterns or joint health. During normal walking, knee flexion range of motion is approximately 15 degrees.

10 degrees of knee flexion is slightly lower than the normal range of motion. 30 degrees of knee flexion is significantly higher than the normal range of motion. 0 degrees of knee flexion would not allow for normal gait mechanics.

103.

A physical therapist is providing treatment to a patient with left hip pain. Early in the session, the therapist plans to provide superficial thermotherapy via a heat pack to the patient's hip. In order for the therapist to provide effective treatment, which of the following depths is the targeted tissue MOST likely at?

  • 3 cm

  • 3.5 cm

  • 4 cm

  • 4.5 cm

Correct answer: 3 cm

Superficial thermotherapy is used to modulate pain and improve blood flow to tissues. When using a small-surface-area heat application, such as a heat pack, targeted structures must be no more than 3 cm deep. Structures deeper than 3 cm require therapeutic ultrasound of shortwave diathermy.

3.5 cm, 4 cm, and 4.5 cm are all too deep for small-surface-area heat applications to be effective.

104.

Use the following scenario to answer the question.

What is the MOST appropriate initial exercise intensity for the patient during phase 1 of cardiac rehabilitation?

  • 2-3 METs

  • 3-5 METs

  • 5-7 METs

  • 7-9 METs

Correct answer: 2-3 METs

Myocardial infarction (MI) describes prolonged ischemia, injury, and death of an area of the myocardium caused by occlusion of one or more of the coronary arteries. Following acute MI, activity can be increased once the acute MI has ended. During phase 1 of cardiac rehabilitation, low-intensity activities at 2-3 METs are appropriate for initial activities, with a limited of 5 METs or 70% of age-predicted heart rate max for 4-6 weeks following MI.

3-5, 5-7, and 7-9 METs are too intense for initial activities in phase 1 of cardiac rehabilitation. Activities may be progressed from 2-3 METs to 5 METs over time.

105.

Use the following scenario to answer this question.

Which of the following precautions is MOST appropriate when treating this patient?

  • Standard precautions

  • Isolation precautions

  • No precautions 

  • Airborne precautions

Correct answer: Standard precautions

AIDS is a condition caused by the HIV-1 or HIV-2 virus that weakens the immune system, resulting in decreased ability to fight infection and progressive neurological complications. When treating a patient who has AIDS, providers should use standard precautions.

Isolation precautions are used in addition to standard precautions for patients with known or suspected infections. Airborne precautions are recommended for patients with a known or suspected infection with pathogens transmitted by the airborne route (tuberculosis, chickenpox, etc.). 

106.

You are performing a physical therapy evaluation for a patient with a known history of type 1 diabetes mellitus in an outpatient facility. Based on this information, which consideration is MOST likely true when treating this patient?

  • This patient will be prone to ketoacidosis.

  • This patient will likely not be insulin-dependent.

  • This patient may experience a progressive decline in pancreatic insulin production.

  • This patient will likely experience inappropriate glucagon secretion.

Correct answer: This patient will be prone to ketoacidosis.

Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus are prone to ketoacidosis. Patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus are not prone to ketoacidosis, although they may form ketones with stress.

The remaining options are true of patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus, not type 1 diabetes mellitus. This progressive disease has a gradual onset with a progressive decline in pancreatic insulin production. These patients have inappropriate glucagon secretion, and they have insulin resistance in muscle and adipose tissue.

107.

Use the following scenario to answer the question.

Which of the following BEST describes the patient's symptoms of intermittent claudication?

  • Grade II

  • Grade I

  • Grade III

  • Grade IV

Correct answer: Grade II

Intermittent claudication refers to exercise-induced pain or cramping in the legs that is absent at rest. Pain is most often in the calf but may also occur in the buttock, hip, thigh, or foot. Subjective ratings of pain with intermittent claudication are as follows:

  • Grade I: Minimal discomfort or pain
  • Grade II: Moderate discomfort or pain; patient's attention can be diverted
  • Grade III: Intense pain; patient's attention cannot be diverted
  • Grade IV: Excruciating and unbearable pain

Because the patient's pain is moderate but their attention can be diverted, grade II is the most appropriate description.

108.

A physical therapy patient is instructed to hold a calf stretch for a set period of time. The calf muscles start to slowly relax. Which of the following is true of this phenomenon, otherwise known as the inverse stretch reflex?

  • It provides a stretch protection reflex

  • It increases stretch sensitivity

  • It increases the rate of firing from spindle afferents

  • It allows muscle tension to come under the control of descending pathways

Correct answer: It provides a stretch protection reflex

The inverse stretch (myotatic) reflex provides a stretch protection reflex.

Gamma reflex loops increase stretch sensitivity, increase the rate of firing from spindle afferents, and allow muscle tension to come under the control of descending pathways (reticulospinal, vestibulospinal, and others).

109.

A physical therapist is educating a patient with lymphedema on lifestyle modifications to better manage their condition. Which of the following is the MOST effective ACTIVE technique for managing lymphedema?

  • Exercise

  • Compression bandages

  • Pneumatic compression pump

  • Heat pack

Correct answer: Exercise

Lymph is moved through the body by the contraction of adjacent muscles, autonomic and sensory nerve stimulation, abdominal and thoracic cavity pressure changes caused by normal breathing, the mechanical stimulation of dermal tissues, and volume changes within individual lymphatic vessels (not blood vessels). Exercise is an active technique that can be used to promote lymphatic drainage.

Compression bandages and pneumatic compression pumps are both passive techniques because effort is not required by the patient during these interventions. Heat packs are contraindicated due to the potential of causing vasodilation and increased lymph load.

110.

A physical therapist is performing an evaluation on a patient following a traumatic brain injury. During the exam, the patient reacts to external stimuli in nonspecific, inconsistent, and non-purposeful ways with stereotypic and limited responses. According to the Rancho Los Amigos Levels of Cognitive Function scale, which of the following is the MOST appropriate level?

  • II

  • IV

  • VI

  • VIII

Correct answer: II

The Rancho Los Amigos Levels of Cognitive Function scale is used to grade a patient's cognitive function based on their behaviors. A level of II (generalized response) indicates a reaction to external stimuli in nonspecific, inconsistent, and non-purposeful ways with stereotypic and limited responses.

A level of IV (confused, agitated response) indicates bizarre, non-purposeful, incoherent, or inappropriate behaviors with no short-term recall and short, nonselective attention. A level of VI (confused, appropriate response) indicates context-appropriate, goal-directed responses while the patient depends upon external input for direction. A level of VIII (purposeful, appropriate response) indicates that the patient is oriented and responds to the environment, but their abstract reasoning abilities are decreased relative to premorbid levels.

111.

A physical therapist working in a subacute setting is recording information in a patient’s medical record. This facility does not use electronic health records, but paper charting.

Which of the following steps MUST the physical therapist take?

  • Sign each entry with their first and last names and professional designation

  • Initial and date each entry

  • White-out any mistakes and correct the entries

  • Ensure that the patient’s social security number is located on the medical record

Correct answer: Sign each entry with their first and last names and professional designation

When recording information in a patient’s medical record, a physical therapist must remember to sign each entry with their first and last names and professional designation.

Each entry should indeed be dated, but because the entries are signed, they do not need to be initialed. White-out should never be used to correct medical records. Instead, mistakes should be crossed out with a single line, initialed, and dated. The patient’s name and one other unique identifier should be on each page of the medical record, but it is unnecessary to include their social security number.

112.

Use the following scenario to answer this question.

Which of the following ASIA scores BEST describes the patient's injury?

  • ASIA D

  • ASIA E

  • ASIA A

  • ASIA B

Correct answer: ASIA D

Spinal cord injuries are partial or complete disruptions of the spinal cord, resulting in paralysis, sensory loss, and altered autonomic and reflex activities. Spinal cord injuries may be scored according to the American Spinal Injury Association on a scale of A to E. An incomplete injury with motor function preserved below the neurological level, where most key muscles below the neurological level have a grade of 3 or more, is given a score of D.

ASIA E refers to normal sensory and motor function. ASIA A refers to complete loss of motor and sensory function. ASIA B refers to complete loss of motor function and partial loss of sensory function.

113.

Use the following scenario to answer this question.

Which of the following is MOST appropriate for managing symptoms at the patient's ankle?

  • Cryotherapy

  • Thermotherapy

  • Hydrotherapy

  • Ultrasound

Correct answer: Cryotherapy

Various modalities such as cryotherapy, thermotherapy, hydrotherapy, electrical stimulation, and ultrasound may be used to help patients manage symptoms and facilitate recovery. Cryotherapy is indicated for inflammation or pain, acute edema, muscle guarding or spasticity, and muscle facilitation. Because the patient is experiencing mild edema and pain in their left ankle without indication of a more serious pathology, cryotherapy is the most appropriate option for managing symptoms.

Thermotherapy is indicated for pain or muscle spasms, increasing tissue extensibility, decreasing joint stiffness, and increasing circulation. Hydrotherapy may be used for heating or cooling, although it is not as available in most outpatient clinics and would not be superior to cryotherapy in this scenario. Ultrasound offers benefits similar to thermotherapy and is often chosen as a means to accelerate the rate of tissue or wound healing.

114.

A physical therapist is working with a 50-year-old female patient in an outpatient clinic following total hip replacement surgery. During the session, the patient complains of abdominal pain, tenderness, and constipation. In reviewing the patient's current medication list, which type of medication would be LEAST likely to contribute to these symptoms?

  • Antibiotics

  • Opiates

  • Antidepressant

  • Calcium channel blockers

Correct answer: Antibiotics

Some side effects of common medications can trigger gastrointestinal changes. Antibiotics can have the side effect of diarrhea (not constipation). Side effects can also include stomach cramps, nausea, and vomiting. Because this patient recently had surgery, it is also very likely that they have been prescribed antibiotics to prevent infection after surgery.

Medications that can trigger constipation include opiates, antidepressants, and calcium channel blockers.

115.

A physical therapist is performing an evaluation on a 25-year-old male patient with new onset left shoulder pain in an outpatient facility. During the physical exam, the therapist positions the patient in a sitting position and passively flexes the patient's left shoulder to 90 degrees, then adds internal rotation.

What is the physical therapist MOST likely assessing for?

  • Reproduction of pain in the patient's posterior shoulder

  • Reproduction of pain in the patient's supraspinatus tendon

  • Reproduction of pain between 60-120 degrees of shoulder abduction

  • Reproduction of pain in the long head of the biceps tendon

Correct answer: Reproduction of pain in the patient's posterior shoulder

The Hawkins-Kennedy test is a special shoulder test that attempts to reproduce the individual’s pain in their posterior shoulder. This test may be performed in varying degrees of flexion and horizontal adduction depending on the circumstances.

The “empty can” test is a special shoulder test that attempts to reproduce pain in the individual’s supraspinatus tendon. The painful arc test attempts to reproduce pain between 60-120 degrees of shoulder abduction. The Speed’s test is a special shoulder test that attempts to reproduce the individual’s pain in the long head of the biceps tendon.

116.

You are examining a 74-year-old female patient in the intensive care unit who has been diagnosed with congestive heart failure. You assess her resting respiratory rate and determine that it is ten breaths per minute.

Which of the following assessments is the MOST correct?

  • Bradypnea

  • Tachypnea

  • Hyperpnea

  • Orthopnea

Correct answer: Bradypnea

When a patient’s respiratory rate is less than or equal to ten breaths per minute, the patient is demonstrating bradypnea.

When a patient’s respiratory rate increases at a rate greater than or equal to 22 breaths per minute, the patient has tachypnea. (Note: Some sources state that with a rate greater than or equal to 20 breaths per minute, the patient has tachypnea.) Hyperpnea occurs when a patient's depth and rate of breathing increase. Orthopnea is the inability to breathe when in a reclining or supine position.

117.

You are working with an 85-year-old male patient with COPD in a skilled nursing facility for general conditioning. Which of the following guidelines is correct?

  • Monitoring of heart rate and blood pressure is required during exercise

  • Exercise should be performed for 60-90 minutes per session

  • Exercise sessions should occur 1-2 times per week

  • Resistance exercise should be the main focus

Correct answer: Monitoring of heart rate and blood pressure is required during exercise

General conditioning for pulmonary rehabilitation should follow guidelines for frequency, intensity, time, and type of exercise. During all forms of general conditioning, heart rate and blood pressure must be monitored.

Exercise duration should be performed 20-30 minutes per session. Exercise frequency should be 3-5 times per week. Aerobic exercise should be the main focus of a general conditioning program, not resistance exercise.

118.

A physical therapist evaluates the walking speed of a patient in an outpatient clinic. The velocity, or walking speed, is the distance traveled divided by the time it took to travel the distance. The therapist finds that the patient's walking speed is slower than average. What is the average walking speed for a typical adult?

  • 3 miles per hour

  • 2 miles per hour

  • 4 miles per hour

  • 1.5 miles per hour

Correct answer: 3 miles per hour

The average walking speed for an average adult is 3 miles per hour. The average walking speed for an individual is affected by an individual’s gender, weight, and height; it decreases with age and disabilities.

119.

A therapist is evaluating a patient with anterior hip pain. During the physical exam, the therapist observes that the patient stands with increased anterior pelvic tilt and demonstrates decreased hip extension during gait.

What test will the therapist MOST likely use to assess muscle tension of the hip?

  • Thomas test

  • Ober’s test

  • Hip scour test

  • FADDIR/FADIR test

Correct answer: Thomas test

The Thomas test is a special hip test used to identify hip flexor tightness. The Thomas test is deemed positive if the patient cannot remain flat on the examination table or the hip flexes on the straight limb when the opposite leg is flexed. Because this patient presents with anterior hip pain, altered pelvic posture, and decreased hip extension, this is the most likely test the therapist would perform to assess muscle length.

Ober’s test is a special hip test used to identify iliotibial band tightness or tensor fascia latae tightness. The hip scour test identifies general hip joint pathology and Degenerative Joint Disease (DJD). The FADDIR/FADIR test identifies anterior-superior impingement, iliopsoas tendinopathy, and anterior labral tears.

120.

A patient receives outpatient preventive care from a nurse practitioner located in a medical office for reoccurring symptoms.

Which of the following would be the BEST term for this setting of care?

  • Ambulatory care

  • Acute rehabilitation hospital

  • Skilled nursing facility

  • Secondary care

Correct answer: Ambulatory care

Ambulatory care is a practice environment in which a patient receives outpatient preventive care from a nurse practitioner located in a medical office.

An acute rehabilitation hospital is a practice environment in which a patient receives at least three hours of daily therapy, with an average length of stay of 15 days. A skilled nursing facility is a practice environment in which a patient is continuously cared for by nursing staff located in a transitional care unit. Secondary care is provided by medical specialists who do not have first contact with patients, such as cardiologists; it often requires inpatient hospitalization or ambulatory same-day surgery.

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