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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

FSBPT NPTE-PTA Exam Questions

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1.

Which nerve root level is tested with the Achilles deep tendon reflex examination?

  • S1-S2

  • L2-L4

  • L5-S3

  • L5-S1

Correct answer: S1-S2

Achilles deep tendon reflex (stretch reflex) testing examines the function of the nerve root level S1-S2. A deep tendon reflex is tested with the muscle positioned in mid-range while the tendon is tapped with a reflex hammer. 

The L5-S3 nerve root level is tested with the hamstrings deep tendon reflex. The L2-L4 nerve root level is tested with the quadriceps deep tendon reflex. The L5-S1 nerve roots are not commonly tested as a group. Often, issues in this area will be tested with muscle strength tests.

2.

In which of the following situations should Waddell's signs be assessed?

  • For a patient who may be malingering

  • For a patient with a lower extremity injury

  • For a patient with an upper extremity injury

  • For a patient with a spine injury

Correct answer: For a patient who may be malingering

Waddell's signs help the therapist to determine if the patient may be overemphasizing their symptoms or faking their symptoms for some reason. Waddell's scores can be used for any instance where a patient is believed to be malingering.

3.

Use the following scenario to answer this question.

After a few days in the hospital, the therapist retests the patient’s orientation. The patient is able to state his name and the time but can’t remember where he is or why he is there. How should this information be documented?

  • A and O x 2

  • A and O x 3

  • A and O x 1

  • A and O x 4

Correct answer: A and O x 2

When working with patients in the hospital, especially those who have had brain injuries or strokes, it's important to frequently ensure that they are alert and oriented to person, place, time, and situation. This patient is only oriented to two of these, so the PT should document this as A and O x 2.

4.

Which of the following conditions is caused by infection?

  • Osteomyelitis

  • Panner's disease

  • Osteomalacia

  • Osteochondritis dessicans

Correct answer: Osteomyelitis

Osteomyelitis is an inflammatory response within the bone caused by an infection. The infection is usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Medical treatment includes antibiotic medication, proper nutrition, and surgery if necessary.

Osteomalacia is the decalcification of bones due to vitamin D deficiency. Osteochondritis dessicans is most commonly caused by a separation of articular cartilage from underlying bone (osteochondral fracture), involving the medial femoral condyle near the intercondylar notch. Panner's disease has unknown etiology, and is localized avascular necrosis of the capitellum which leads to the loss of subchondral bone. This condition occurs in children aged ten or younger.

5.

In which position should a patient be placed for postural drainage of the apical segments of the upper lobe?

  • Leaning back on a pillow at a 30-degree angle against the therapist

  • In the supine position with a pillow under the knees

  • Leaning over a folded pillow at a 30-degree angle

  • In the prone position in a head-down position with a pillow under the hips

Correct answer: Leaning back on a pillow at a 30-degree angle against the therapist

To clear the apical segments of the upper lobes, the patient should lean back on a pillow at a 30-degree angle against the therapist.

To promote postural drainage in the anterior segments of the upper lobes, the patient should be in the supine position with a pillow under the knees. To promote postural drainage of the posterior segments of the upper lobes, the patient should lean over a folded pillow at a 30-degree angle. To promote postural drainage of the posterior basal segments of the lower lobes, the patient should be in the prone position in a head-down position with a pillow under the hips.

6.

A patient has tibial nerve dysfunction. Which of the following modifications of the straight leg raise would tension this nerve?

  • Extension of knee, dorsiflexion of ankle, eversion of foot, and extension of toes

  • Extension of knee, plantarflexion of ankle, eversion of foot, and extension of toes

  • Extension of knee, dorsiflexion of ankle, inversion of foot, and extension of toes

  • Extension of knee, dorsiflexion of ankle, inversion of foot, and flexion of toes

Correct answer: Extension of knee, dorsiflexion of ankle, eversion of foot, and extension of toes

In order to tension the tibial nerve, the hip should be flexed, with the knee extended, ankle dorsiflexed, foot everted, and toes extended.

7.

Appendicitis is an inflammation of the vermiform appendix. As the condition progresses, the appendix becomes swollen, gangrenous, and perforated. These patients present with tenderness at McBurney's point.

Where is McBurney's point located on the body?

  • 1.5-2 inches above the anterior superior iliac spine in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen

  • 1.5-2 inches above the anterior superior iliac spine in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen

  • Right upper quadrant of the abdomen

  • Left lower quadrant of the abdomen

Correct answer: 1.5-2 inches above the anterior superior iliac spine in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen

McBurney's point is located 1.5-2 inches above the anterior superior iliac spine in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. Point tenderness and specifically rebound pain at this location may indicate appendicitis. Immediate medical attention is required for this individual, as perforation of an appendix can be life-threatening.

8.

A physical therapist is conducting a study on the efficacy of a new passive treatment modality that combines laser therapy with ultrasound. He will compare this treatment to one that is considered the current standard of care for shoulder pain. 

Which of the following would serve as the control group in this study?

  • The group that receives the standard care

  • The group that receives the new treatment

  • The group that receives both treatments

  • The group that receives treatment for pain in a different joint

Correct answer: The group that receives the standard care

A control group is one that allows for comparison with the treatment or intervention group. In many studies, the control group will receive the typical standard of care, while the intervention or experimental group will receive the treatment in question. This allows for comparison between these groups. 

A group that receives both treatments would be a different type of study. Treatment for a different joint would not serve as a control for a study on shoulder pain.

9.

Which of the following is a type of cancer that affects bone marrow?

  • Leukemia

  • Lymphoma

  • Carcinoma

  • Sarcoma

Correct answer: Leukemia

Leukemia is a type of cancer that affects bone marrow and blood.

It is useful for therapists to recognize the differences between types of tumors or neoplasms they may see when assessing a patient, as well as to know about the cancer diagnoses some therapy patients may have. 

A sarcoma is a malignant tumor that originates in connective and mesodermal tissues (such as the muscle, bone, or fat). A carcinoma is a malignant tumor that originates from epithelial tissues (such as the skin, stomach, colon, breast, and rectum). A lymphoma is a malignant tumor that affects the lymphatic system (such as Hodgkin's disease and lymphatic leukemia).

10.

A patient arrives for their PT appointment demonstrating preservation of fluent speech, accompanied by severely impaired auditory comprehension. Which of the following conditions BEST fits this description?

  • Receptive aphasia

  • Expressive aphasia

  • Verbal apraxia

  • Association aphasia

Correct answer: Receptive aphasia

Receptive aphasia (also known as Wernicke's aphasia or fluent aphasia) occurs from damage to Wernicke's area. With this condition, spontaneous speech is preserved and flows smoothly, but auditory comprehension is impaired.

The remaining answer options are incorrect. Expressive aphasia (also called Broca's motor aphasia, or nonfluent aphasia) occurs from damage to Broca's area and results in speech that is awkward and restricted. Verbal apraxia is the impairment of volitional articulatory control due to a cortical lesion in the dominant hemisphere. Association aphasia (or conduction aphasia), is the result of damage to the arcuate fasciculus (the neural fibers that connect Wernicke's and Broca's areas). It causes patients to have difficulty finding words and repeating phrases.

11.

Which of the following treatments is likely MOST appropriate for a patient with advanced osteomalacia?

  • Aquatic therapy

  • Walking program

  • Traction

  • Plyometric training

Correct answer: Aquatic therapy

Walking and moving in the water can reduce the stress on a patient's bones and joints. This is an important factor for those with osteomalacia, who are at risk for fractures and other bone issues due to their vitamin D deficiency.

Walking, traction, and plyometrics are all likely too high level for a patient with advanced osteomalacia.

12.

A therapist is working with a patient with Erb's palsy. This condition is most often caused by either a traction or compression injury during the birth process, or by a rib abnormality.

Which nerve roots are involved?

  • C5-C6

  • C8-T1

  • C5-T1

  • Varies among patients

Correct answer: C5-C6

Erb's paralysis, also known as Erb-Duchenne paralysis, involves C5-C6 and upper arm paralysis. It may also involve the rhomboids, levator scapulae, serratus anterior, deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, biceps brachii, brachioradialis, brachialis, supinator, and long extensors of the wrist, fingers, and thumb. 

Klumpke's paralysis involves C8-T1 and lower arm paralysis. Total or whole arm paralysis (formerly known as Erb-Klumpke palsy) involves C5-T1. The lesion level varies among patients with spina bifida, not Erb's paralysis.

13.

While treating a patient with hip joint dysfunction, the PTA decides to incorporate PNF (proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation) techniques. She instructs the patient to "push your foot down, turn, and push your leg down and out."

What BEST describes this PNF diagonal?

  • D1E

  • D1F

  • D2F

  • D2E

Correct answer: D1E

D1E (diagonal 1 extension) for the lower extremity involves extension-abduction-internal rotation of the hip. The knee may be straight, flexing, or extending.

D1F (diagonal 1 flexion) for the lower extremity involves flexion-adduction-external rotation of the hip. D2F (diagonal 2 flexion) for the lower extremity involves flexion-abduction-internal rotation of the hip. D2E (diagonal 2 extension) for the lower extremity involves extension-adduction-internal rotation of the hip.

14.

A therapist measures a nine-year-old patient's respiratory rate as 18 breaths per minute. How should this finding be classified?

  • Abnormal

  • Normal

  • Tachypnea

  • Bradypnea

Correct answer: Abnormal

The normal respiratory rate (RR) for a child (in this case, a nine-year-old) is 20-30 breaths per minute, and so a respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute is abnormal. The normal respiratory rates for patients of various ages are as follows:

  • Adult: 12-20 breaths per minute
  • Newborn: 30-40 breaths per minute
  • Child: 20-30 breaths per minute

Tachypnea is an increase in RR to 22 or more breaths per minute. Bradypnea is a decrease in RR to 10 or fewer breaths per minute.

15.

A patient has recently sustained a superficial partial-thickness burn. In an apparently healthy patient, what is the expected healing time for this injury?

  • 7-21 days

  • 3-7 days

  • 1-2 weeks

  • 14-30 days

Correct answer: 7-21 days

Superficial partial-thickness (second-degree) burns are expected to heal spontaneously, within 7-21 days. They result in minimal or no scarring, but may cause discoloration.

Epidermal (first-degree) burns are expected to heal spontaneously within 3-7 days, with no scarring. Deeper burns, including deep partial-thickness (second-degree), full thickness (third-degree) and subdermal (fourth-degree) burns, heal more slowly and may require medical intervention.

16.

Use the following scenario to answer this question.

After a while, the patient is feeling slightly better and is able to go for a walk. Which of the following changes in her lab values would indicate effective compensation?

  • PH: normal, PaCO2: low, HCO3-: low

  • PH: low, PaCO2: high, HCO3-: normal

  • PH: low, PaCO2: high, HCO3-: low

  • PH: high, PaCO2: low, HCO3-: high

Correct answer: PH: normal, PaCO2: low, HCO3-: low

Compensation in this context refers to a correction of a PH imbalance. Since the PH was high to start, or more basic, then lowering HCO3- lower than baseline could compensate for and correct the issue, at least temporarily.

17.

What is the MINIMUM clear width for doorways and halls in order for them to provide wheelchair accessibility?

  • 32 inches

  • 36 inches

  • 24 inches

  • 30 inches

Correct answer: 32 inches

When a patient uses a wheelchair, they must be mindful of certain environmental considerations. It may be up to the clinician to evaluate the patient's living/working environment, and/or to educate the patient on these considerations. For wheelchairs, the minimum clear width for doorways and halls is 32 inches. 

The ideal (but not minimum) clear width for doorways and halls to accommodate wheelchairs is 36 inches. Standard adult wheelchairs have a width of 24-26 inches from rim to rim. The standard height of the armrest (measured from armrest to floor) is 29-30 inches.

18.

A patient is exercising on a treadmill for about 15 minutes, walking at a progressively faster pace. Immediately after she finishes, the PTA takes her heart rate and determines that it is 130 beats per minute. Her seated, resting heart rate before starting exercise was 60 beats per minute. 

Which of the following is TRUE in this scenario, given only the information provided?

  • This seems like a reasonable increase in heart rate during treadmill exercise

  • This is an abnormally high heart rate during exercise

  • This is an abnormally low heart rate at rest

  • This is an abnormally low heart rate during exercise

Correct answer: This seems like a reasonable increase in heart rate during treadmill exercise

During exercise, heart rate is expected to increase proportionally to the intensity of the exercise. For most patients, this resting and exercise heart rate would constitute a normal change.

19.

A patient was recently diagnosed with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is TRUE of this condition?

  • Most of those diagnosed will have complete remission

  • It only affects people aged 17 to 18

  • It does not have a genetic correlation

  • There are no diagnostic tests for the condition

Correct answer: Most of those diagnosed will have complete remission

Roughly 75% of children diagnosed with JRA will see complete resolution of symptoms. It can traditionally affect anyone under the age of 16, is thought to be tied to genetics, and diagnostic tests include white blood cell counts and other blood marker tests. 

20.

Which of these injuries causes a characteristic "garden spade" deformity?

  • Smith's fracture

  • Colles' fracture

  • Scaphoid fracture

  • Any type of wrist fracture can cause a "garden spade" deformity

Correct answer: Smith's fracture

Smith's fracture causes a characteristic "garden spade" deformity. Smith's fracture is similar to Colles' fracture, except that a fragment of the radius is displaced in a volar direction.

In Colles' fracture, a fragment of the radius is displaced in a dorsal or posterior direction. 

This deformity is a specific finding related to a Smith's fracture. A scaphoid fracture or a fracture of other bony tissue in the wrist would not cause the garden spade deformity.

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