FSMTB MBLEx Exam Questions

Correct answer: A disease in which an individual’s immune system destroys its own tissue

An autoimmune disease is a disease in which an individual’s immune system destroys its own tissue. Examples of autoimmune diseases include rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, scleroderma, and systemic lupus.

During degeneration, body tissue is broken down. Infectious diseases occur when pathogenic microorganisms invade the body. Trauma is sustained when the body is damaged by physical, chemical, or radioactive causes.

Correct answer: One hand placed close to the joint, acting as a stabilizer. The other hand placed at the distal end of the bone, performing the movement. 

Hand placement by the massage therapist is important to ensure proper assessment as well as patient safety and comfort. When performing passive range of motion, one hand should be used as a stabilizer and positioned close to the joint. The other hand should provide the movement, and be positioned at the distal end of the bone.

Correct answer: Synarthrotic

In a synarthrotic (or fibrous) joint, connective tissue directly connects bone to bone and allows for little to no movement. The three different types of synarthrotic joints are sutures, gomphoses, and syndesmoses.

Diarthrotic (or synovial) joints do not unite two bones directly; instead, they include a joint cavity filled with synovial fluid and surrounded by a joint capsule. This structure allows the joint to move freely. The shoulder, hip, elbow, wrist, and knee, are all examples of synovial joints. There are several types of synovial joints: hinge joints, pivot joints, condyloid (or condylar) joints, saddle joints, ball-and-socket joints, and gliding joints. 

Because the manubriosternal joint is immovable, it is not diarthrotic. It cannot be a condyloid joint, because condyloid joints are diarthrotic joints. 

Correct answer: Chronic

The chronic phase of tissue healing focuses on the remodeling of tissue and occurs 3 to 12 months after an injury. The healing tissue is no longer fragile, and collagen is laid down along lines of stress. Therefore, developing scar tissue along appropriate lines of stress to improve mobility will be beneficial in this phase as well as improving firing patterns and reducing compensatory ones. 

The acute phase should focus on managing pain and improving sleep, while the subacute phases should focus on managing edema, pain, scar mobility, and compensation patterns. It is not until the chronic phase that the focus shifts to developing strength in scar tissue.

Correct answer: Employ clinical reasoning to develop an appropriate care plan with quantifiable goals

In order to properly utilize the data gathered during the assessment, the massage therapist must employ clinical reasoning to develop an appropriate care plan with quantifiable goals. Each care plan should be unique and tailored to the needs of the specific client. The assessment information guides the massage professional in creating quantifiable outcome goals. As the treatment progresses, the massage therapist can reassess the objective data to determine what progress has been made.

There is no professionally recognized national database the therapist can use for a comparison of norms.

The therapist may confer with a physician in certain cases, but this is not always required.

While relaxation massage may be a component of the care plan for some clients, it is not always indicated.

Correct answer: Herpes zoster

Herpes zoster usually affects the skin of a single dermatome. Herpes zoster, commonly called shingles, is a virus that causes a red, swollen plaque that ruptures and crusts. 

Herpes simplex is an acute viral disease that causes cold sores.

Eczema is an allergic reaction that causes inflammation of the skin.

Folliculitis is the inflammation of a hair follicle.

Correct answer: Vagus nerves

The vagus nerves contain sensory neurons for the pharynx, larynx, trachea, heart, carotid body, lungs, bronchi, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and gallbladder. Their motor neurons carry impulses to the pharyngeal and laryngeal muscles, and the abdominal viscera. They control heart rate and other visceral activities.

The cranial nerves include: 

I. The olfactory nerves, which transmit taste and smell information to the brain.

II. The optic nerves, which transmit visual information to the brain.

III. The oculomotor nerves, which transmit information about eye movement.

IV. The trochlear nerves, which innervate the muscles of the eyeball.

V. The trigeminal nerves, which transmit information about sensation in the head, face, and facial skin, and include motor neurons for mastication.

VI. The abducens nerves, which include both sensory and motor neurons related to eye movement.

VII. The facial nerves, which have sensory neurons for taste and motor neurons for facial expression, tear production, and salivation.

VIII. The vestibulocochlear nerves, which receive information about hearing and equilibrium.

IX. The glossopharyngeal nerves, which relate to taste, saliva production, swallowing, and the gag reflex.

X. The vagus nerves. These nerves contain sensory neurons for the pharynx, larynx, trachea, heart, carotid body, lungs, bronchi, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and gallbladder. Their motor neurons carry impulses to the pharyngeal and laryngeal muscles and the abdominal viscera. They control heart rate and other visceral activities.

XI. The accessory nerves mainly contain motor neurons for speaking, turning the head, and moving the shoulders.

XII. The hypoglossal nerves contain mostly motor neurons, which innervate the tongue and throat.

Correct answer: When a person stretches themselves

Active stretching is when a person stretches himself or herself. Most stretches are held for 20–30 seconds statically in order to make a change in the muscle length. 

Passive stretching is when a secondary individual stretches another person. Passive range of motion is moving a client's joint through full extension and flexion. Reciprocal inhibition stretching is the contraction of the antagonistic muscle to the muscle being stretched.

Correct answer: Saddle joint

A saddle joint has movement in two planes: the frontal (or coronal) and sagittal planes. 

In saddle joints, each bone has both convex and concave surfaces, resembling a saddle. This configuration allows for flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and minimal rotation. The joint between the wrist and the metacarpal bone of the thumb is an example of this.

In suture joints, two articulating bones are connected by a thin layer of dense fibrous tissue. This type of joint is found only in the skull, and allows little to no movement.

In a hinge joint, the cylindrical end of one bone fits into the trough-shaped surface of another. This structure acts like a door hinge, allowing for flexion and extension in just one plane. Both the elbow and knee are hinge joints.

In a pivot joint, one component is shaped like a ring and the other has a rounded end of bone that fits into that ring. This allows the bones to rotate, moving only in one plane. The atlanto-axial joint, between the first and second vertebrae, is an example of this.

Correct answer: Neck flexion and rotation

The sternocleidomastoid muscle is responsible for neck flexion and contralateral rotation (rotation to the opposite side). It originates at the manubrium of the sternum and the superior border of the medial third of the clavicle. It inserts on the superior surface of the mastoid process and the superior nuchal line of the occiput.

The platysma muscle is responsible for lower jaw depression. The masseter muscle is responsible for mandible elevation. The buccinator muscle is responsible for cheek movement.

Correct answer: Diuretics

Diuretics are not classified as respiratory medications. They are normally used to treat hypertension (high blood pressure).

Bronchodilators dilate (enlarge) the airways of the lungs.

Antihistamines suppress allergic responses.

Antitussives suppress a cough. 

Correct answer: As soon as possible 

It is common for a therapist to see several clients every day. The therapist's memories of each session can quickly fade, or become confused. It's best for the therapist to document each session as soon as possible in order to avoid any errors or missing information.

If a therapist is especially busy, they may not have time to document a session immediately. However, they should make every effort to take written notes as soon as possible, rather than waiting until the end of the day or later in the week. It is absolutely imperative that the notes be recorded before the client's next session, but there is no need to wait.

Correct answer: Hold off on treatment, have the parents return and give consent for treatment

Since this client is under 18, informed consent must be obtained from the parents prior to any treatment. Therefore, absolutely no treatment should occur until this is obtained. If possible, the parents should be called and asked to come to the clinic to complete this.

If at all possible, the client should not be immediately sent home since all that is needed is consent from the parents. Once this is obtained, treatment can begin. The client is not able to give consent since they are so young. Signing informed consent at the next visit is not appropriate because treatment will have already occurred.

Correct answer: The skin

The skin is the largest organ of the body. It is made of three layers of tissue, including the epidermis, dermis and the subcutaneous tissue. It serves to protect the body from injury and infection, as well as controlling body temperature.

There is a great deal of muscular tissue in the body, but the muscular system is not considered to be one single organ. The small intestine is a long organ that completes digestion, absorbs nutrients and water, and digests proteins, sugars and starches. A church organ is not an anatomical structure.

Correct answer: Obtain informed consent from the client

Informed consent can be given by the client only after they have adequate information about how the massage therapist intends to proceed. The therapist must outline what services they will provide, as well as the risks, benefits, and possible other impacts of massage on the client's unique condition. After they understand this information, the client can give informed consent by agreeing to receive treatment in the manner described. The client can revoke consent at any time.

The amount of treatment the client has received or will receive has no impact on whether the therapist should refer them to another provider. Once the therapist obtains informed consent, the next step is for the therapist to either contact the health care provider directly or share that provider's professional contact information with the client. In some cases, it will be appropriate for the therapist to share the client's records with a new provider; this absolutely cannot occur without the client's informed consent.

Correct answer: It requires specific courses and/or exam

To obtain a government certification, a massage therapist must take specific educational courses and also pass a standardized test. This is administered by an independent board.

It is voluntary, which means it is possible to obtain a diploma in the field without further certification. However, it is required for anyone using the protected title.

Correct answer: Transference

Transference is when the client personalizes a professional relationship.

Countertransference is a professional's inability to separate the therapeutic relationship from the personal relationship. It occurs when the professional personalizes the professional relationship.

The scope of practice is the knowledge base of a profession as well as the practice parameters. The massage therapist must only perform interventions that fall under the massage therapist scope of practice.

Standards of practice are the principles that serve as guidelines for guiding ethical practice and quality care. It provides a structure for evaluating the efficacy of a massage therapist's practice.

Correct answer: Reduces the number of pathogens to a level that is not harmful

Disinfection reduces the number of pathogens to a level that is not considered harmful, but it does not eliminate all of them. This process is commonly used to clean surfaces and tools in massage therapy, ensuring that the environment is sanitary without achieving complete sterilization. Disinfection procedures most often involve:

• Cleaning surfaces with hot, soapy water
• Using disinfectants like a 10% bleach solution or other EPA-approved disinfectants on massage tables, tools, and other equipment.
• Washing hands thoroughly before and after each client session.
• Regularly laundering linens and towels with hot water and appropriate detergents.
• Maintaining proper ventilation in the massage space to reduce airborne pathogens.

Sterilization eliminates all pathogens, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi, and is used in medical and other sterile environments.

Creating a barrier against pathogens refers to isolation techniques, such as using gloves or other protective gear to prevent contamination.

Antiseptics inhibit the growth and reproduction of pathogens on living tissues but do not necessarily kill them, which is different from the disinfection of surfaces.

Correct answer: Increased flexibility

The increased flexibility and mobility is a physiological effect of a massage, not a psychological effect.

The psychological effects of a massage include the reduction of stress from medical conditions, the reduction of pain from chronic illnesses, the reduction of fatigue and anxiety, the promotion of one’s feeling of well-being, the promotion of deep relaxation, and the enhancement of productivity.

Correct answer: Vomiting in the past 24 hours

While vomiting can be a sign of pathology, if it has only been occurring in the past 24 hours, this is not a reason for referral. If it occurs with blood in the stool or any of the other answer options, then referral would be needed. 

Rebound tenderness is the occurrence of pain after a clinician presses firmly into the abdomen and then releases; this may indicate peritonitis. Both a rigid abdomen and difficulty swallowing can be signs of various gastrointestinal pathologies, and all of these signs are reasons for referral.