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FSMTB MBLEx Exam Questions
Page 7 of 50
121.
Regarding joint articulation, what type of joint is the hip joint?
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Ball-and-socket
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Pivot
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Gliding
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Hinge
Correct answer: Ball-and-socket
In ball-and-socket joints, one bone ends in a spherical head and the other has a round socket. This formation allows free movement in many directions around a central point. The hip joint and the glenohumeral joint in the shoulder are both ball-and-socket joints.
In a pivot joint, one component is shaped like a ring and the other has a rounded end of bone that fits into that ring. This allows the bones to rotate. The atlanto-axial joint, between the first and second vertebrae, is an example of this.
A gliding joint, also called a synovial plane joint, allows only a side-to-side gliding motion between two bones. One example is the superior tibiofibular joint.
In a hinge joint, the cylindrical end of one bone fits into the trough-shaped surface of another. This structure acts like a door hinge, allowing for flexion and extension in just one plane. Both the elbow and knee are hinge joints.
122.
Which group of muscles are used during ankle movement to bring one's toes toward the leg?
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Dorsiflexors
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Plantar flexors
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Invertors
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Evertors
Correct answer: Dorsiflexors
Dorsiflexors are the group of muscles that are used during ankle movement to bring one's toes toward the leg.
The plantar flexors move the toes away from the leg. The invertors cause the soles of the feet to face medially (to face one another). The evertors cause the soles of the feet to face laterally (to face away from one another).
123.
A massage therapist has been very busy with client care lately. A rare and exciting opportunity arose for his company to market at a large event. The day of this event happens to fall on a Saturday, which is normally one of his days off. The therapist's manager makes it clear that this event is optional, but the therapist knows it is an important marketing opportunity.
What is the best course of action for the therapist to take?
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Go to the event for the benefit of everyone in the company.
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Go to the event but leave early.
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Do not go to the event because there is no obligation to do so.
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Do not go to the event because it is his day off.
Correct answer: Go to the event for the benefit of everyone in the company.
Part of being a good employee is extending oneself, even if it is occasionally inconvenient, to benefit other employees in the long-term. By attending this event, more clients are likely to come to the clinic, helping the company as a whole. Even though it is his day off, occasionally participating in these activities is ideal.
Assuming this event is a rare occurrence, going to the event and leaving early is not ideal. This can show a lack of commitment on the employee's part. If the therapist's manager expects him to attend events every Saturday, however, it may become important to set boundaries. There is certainly no obligation for the employee to go since it is on his day off, but it is a mark of a good employee to go above and beyond what is expected.
124.
Which is not a physiologic effect of hydrotherapy on the body?
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Ionic
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Thermal
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Mechanical
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Chemical
Correct answer: Ionic
The physiologic effects of hydrotherapy are primarily thermal, mechanical, and chemical. These effects are produced as follows:
- Thermal effects are produced when water is applied above or below the body temperature.
- Mechanical effects are produced by the impact of water on the body surface in the form of sprays, frictions, whirlpools, and hydrostatic pressure forces.
- Chemical effects are produced when water is ingested and when used to irrigate a body cavity.
Hydrotherapy is not known to produce ionic effects on the body.
125.
What produce(s) a hormone that lowers calcium levels in the blood, and what is this hormone called?
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Thyroid; calcitonin
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Posterior pituitary gland; oxytocin
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Adrenal glands; norepinephrine
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Thyroid; thyroxine
Correct answer: Thyroid; calcitonin
The thyroid produces a hormone that lowers calcium levels in the blood. This hormone is called calcitonin. It decreases levels of blood calcium by inhibiting the release of calcium and potassium from the bones.
The thyroid also produces thyroxine and triiodothyronine, which regulate the body's metabolism by maintaining an appropriate level of oxygen consumption on a cellular level.
The posterior pituitary gland produces oxytocin, which stimulates positive emotions and regulates lactation.
The adrenal glands produce norepinephrine (or noradrenaline) in response to stress.
126.
Which of the following cellular functions is responsible for the production of egg and sperm cells?
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Meiosis
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Mitosis
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Cell division
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Interphase
Correct answer: Meiosis
Meiosis is a specialized form of cell division. During this process, the number of chromosomes is halved before being reproduced in a new cell. Meiosis results in the creation of ova or sperm cells, used in the reproductive process.
Mitosis is another word for cell division. Meiosis is a specialized kind of mitosis. Interphase is the stage in a cell's life cycle when it carries out most of its activities; this period of time does not include cell division.
127.
Which of the following is a neurologic condition in which a client experiences noise in the ear that may include ringing, buzzing, or clicking sounds?
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Tinnitus
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Vertigo
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Dystonia
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Dyskinesia
Correct answer: Tinnitus
Tinnitus is a condition of noise in the ear. Clients can experience this as ringing, buzzing, roaring, and clicking sounds. It can be due to dysfunction of the auditory nerves or auditory processing in the brain. It can also be associated with circulation disorders, inner ear disorders, or even head injury. The client should be referred to their physician for assessment and treatment.
Vertigo is the sensation of movement during stillness. Dystonia is the disordered, random tonicity of muscles. Dyskinesia is the impairment of voluntary movement.
128.
When working with a patient with a large scar from a total knee replacement, which technique would be the most beneficial to use over the resulting scar?
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Friction
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Petrissage
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Effleurage
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Tapotement
Correct answer: Friction
Frictioning techniques are used to break up adhesions and scar tissue through the use of shear force. They are most effective over connective tissue and scars. In this example, friction would be applied transversely across the scar. The scar after a total knee replacement is usually quite large and can restrict knee flexion. A therapist should only perform this technique over a scar after the acute healing phase has passed.
Petrissage is used to reduce muscle tension and can soften superficial fascia. It is not the most appropriate technique for scar mobilization. Effleurage can soften tissue but is more effective in improving venous and lymphatic drainage. Tapotement is used more for stimulation of muscles or with clearing mucus from the lungs. Friction is the only technique that directly targets scar tissue to improve mobility.
129.
What is the pathway of a reflex arc?
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Sensory receptor > central nervous system > motor neuron
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Motor neuron > central nervous system > sensory receptor
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Sensory receptor > peripheral nervous system > motor neuron
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Motor neuron > peripheral nervous system > sensory receptor
Correct answer: Sensory receptor > central nervous system > motor neuron
A reflex arc is the path a reflex takes from a stimulus to an action. The stimulus is received by a sensory receptor in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and relayed back to the central nervous system (CNS). The CNS sends a signal back to the motor neurons of the PNS, causing a response.
130.
Becky is flexing and extending her wrist with her eyes closed. Becky's ability to sense that her wrist is changing position is called:
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Proprioception
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Physiologic range of motion
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Chemoreception
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Nociception
Correct answer: Proprioception
Proprioception is a kinesthetic sense that allows a person to know where their body is in space. Proprioceptors respond to changes in position and movement. The main proprioceptors influenced by massage are the muscle spindle and Golgi tendon organs. Proprioceptors (and mechanoreceptors) are located in the fascia, muscles, tendons, and joints.
Soft tissue consists of four basic categories of sensory nerves:
- Mechanoreceptors respond to touch, pressure, and movement.
- Proprioceptors respond to changes in position and movement.
- Chemoreceptors respond to chemical changes such as oxygen levels and acid-base balance.
- Nociceptors respond to irritation and pain.
The physiologic range of motion (ROM) is the ROM available to a joint as determined by the nervous system. This range of motion usually prevents the joint from being positioned in such a way that it is vulnerable to injury.
131.
If you notice that a client is unable to fully bend his right knee in order to lower himself into a chair, what are you visually assessing?
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The client's restricted range of motion
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The client's gait
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The client's posture
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The client's balance
Correct answer: The client's restricted range of motion
If you notice that a client has a difficult time bending his knees in order to lower himself into a chair, you are visually assessing the client's restricted range of motion.
If you notice that a client does not have a smooth and continuous walking pattern, you are visually assessing the client's gait. If you notice that the client's body is not symmetrical, you are visually assessing the client's posture. If you notice that the patient displays poor balance and reaches for support, you would be analyzing his balance.
132.
A client has been recently diagnosed with pancreatic cancer. His doctor has said he is not likely to survive longer than two months. The client is unable to get out of bed and has been placed in hospice care.
Massage in this setting can provide all the following benefits, except:
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Stimulate nociceptors to reduce pain levels
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Change sensory perception and subsequently reduce pain levels
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Stress reduction
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Provide relief for caregivers
Correct answer: Stimulate nociceptors to reduce pain levels
Massage for the terminally ill client has a wide variety of benefits. It can absolutely reduce pain levels; however, this does not occur by stimulating nociceptors. The stimulation of nociceptors would increase pain rather than reduce it.
Massage can change sensory perception simply by the change in position or small movements since this patient cannot get out of bed.
It can also reduce stress levels and provide some respite for caregivers, if even for a short time, since the massage therapist is actively providing care for the client. In this setting, it is important that the massage therapist continues with sessions until the client passes, if that is what the client desires.
133.
What happens when the stretch reflex is activated?
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The stretching of a muscle elicits a protective contraction of that same muscle.
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The contraction of one muscle causes its antagonist to relax.
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Passive stretching increases flexibility.
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The act of overstretching a muscle causes pain.
Correct answer: The stretching of a muscle elicits a protective contraction of that same muscle.
When the stretch reflex is activated, the stretching of a muscle elicits a protective contraction of that same muscle. This reflex guards against muscle injury. For example, if a person trips, forcing their hip into hyperextension, they may risk injuring the joint and surrounding muscles. In this scenario, the stretch reflex would cause the hip flexors to contract, pulling the joint back into a less dangerous position.
During reciprocal inhibition, the contraction of one muscle causes its antagonist to relax. Passive stretching can indeed increase flexibility, and the act of overstretching a muscle often causes pain; however, neither of these activities can be described as a reflex.
134.
A massage therapist is working with a client who had a knee replacement 10 months ago. The client is still limited in knee flexion and feels his quads are "tight." What is the best treatment approach for this client?
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Cross-friction mobilization of the scar, progressive stretching into knee flexion, kneading of the quadriceps
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Mobilization of the scar toward the knee, active range of motion in mid-ranges
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Lymphatic drainage, passive range of motion in mid-ranges
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This client is not appropriate for treatment secondary to his post-operative status
Correct answer: Cross-friction mobilization of the scar, progressive stretching into knee flexion, kneading of the quadriceps
This client's condition is chronic because his surgery was 10 months ago. In this phase, treatment should focus on normalization of scar mobility and strength, reducing adhesions, and restoring tissue pliability. Shortened quadriceps are likely a large contributing factor in reduced knee flexion. Therefore, cross-friction mobilization of the scar will improve scar mobility and strength. Progressive stretching will help to improve soft tissue mobility and pliability, and kneading will help to reduce muscle tension to improve the mobility of the quadriceps.
This client is appropriate for treatment since he had surgery 10 months ago. Mobilization of the scar toward the knee and active range of motion in mid-ranges is not aggressive enough for this phase of tissue healing and would be more appropriate in the subacute phase. Lymphatic drainage and passive range of motion in mid-ranges are most appropriate in the acute phase and therefore are not aggressive enough for this client.
135.
In regard to the molecular and anatomical level or organization in the human body, which of the following atoms in living things, such as humans, is the least common?
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Sulfur
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Hydrogen
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Carbon
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Nitrogen
Correct answer: Sulfur
Atoms bond to form molecules, which comprise cells and all higher levels of human organs and tissues. The most commonly found atoms in living things (including humans) are hydrogen, carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen.
Sulfur is found in the human body but in very low amounts.
136.
Which massage stroke prevents and breaks up local adhesions in connective tissues, over tendons, ligaments, and scars?
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Friction
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Vibration
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Gliding
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Compression
Correct answer: Friction
Frictioning is a stroke that can be accomplished by using the thumbs, fingers, palms, or elbows. The friction stroke applies transverse pressure to an isolated area, which is aimed at moving the superficial tissue across deep tissue. The friction stroke is used to loosen the client’s adhesions, fascia, and scar tissue, promote flexibility, and increase circulation.
Vibration (oscillation) is used to warm the body and temporarily decrease muscle tone. Gliding (effleurage) is a light stroke that warms the superficial tissues. Compression targets the muscle belly and triggers a reflexive response in the muscle spindles.
137.
Which of the following does a client with a heart murmur have?
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A faulty heart valve
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A heart that beats irregularly
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A heart that receives decreased blood due to a blocked artery
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A heart that has abnormal contractions
Correct answer: A faulty heart valve
A client with a heart murmur has a faulty heart valve. Specifically, a heart murmur is a result of a leaking heart valve. When listening with a stethoscope, the clinician will hear extra sounds.
Arrhythmia is the term used to describe a heart that beats irregularly.
Coronary artery disease is a disease that causes the heart to receive decreased blood due to a blocked artery.
Fibrillation occurs when the heart has abnormal contractions.
138.
Which position should be avoided for clients using decongestants?
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Prone
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Supine
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Right side-lying
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Left side-lying
Correct answer: Prone
Decongestants are medications that open air passages by constricting blood vessels in the nose and sinuses. The prone position increases congestion and pressure on the sinuses, so it should be avoided.
Supine and side-lying positions are acceptable for a client using decongestants because they do not increase congestion or put pressure on the sinuses.
139.
Which type of joint allows movement in many directions around a central point?
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Ball-and-socket joint
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Saddle joint
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Pivot joint
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Hinge joint
Correct answer: Ball-and-socket joint
In ball-and-socket joints, one bone ends in a spherical head and the other has a round socket. This formation allows free movement in many directions around a central point. The glenohumeral joint in the shoulder is a ball-and-socket joint.
In saddle joints, each bone has both convex and concave surfaces, resembling a saddle. This configuration allows for flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and minimal rotation. The joint between the wrist and the metacarpal bone of the thumb is an example of this.
In a pivot joint, one component is shaped like a ring and the other has a rounded end of bone that fits into that ring. This allows the bones to rotate. The atlanto-axial joint, between the first and second vertebrae, is an example of this.
In a hinge joint, the cylindrical end of one bone fits into the trough-shaped surface of another. This structure acts like a door hinge, allowing for flexion and extension in just one plane. Both the elbow and knee are hinge joints.
140.
A massage therapist has been seeing a particular client for several years when the client is diagnosed with impetigo. How should the therapist proceed?
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Ensure the client has seen a physician for this condition and then continue with the massage while avoiding the affected area
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Continue with massage as usual
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Inform the client she cannot have a massage while this condition is present
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Ensure the client has seen a physician for this condition and then continue with massage as usual
Correct answer: Ensure the client has seen a physician for this condition and then continue with the massage while avoiding the affected area
Impetigo is a highly contagious bacterial infection of the skin that is most commonly seen in children. While it is important to refer these clients to a physician, continuing with massage can help to enhance circulation and, therefore, enhance healing. It is also important to avoid treatment in the involved area entirely as impetigo is highly communicable.
Impetigo is a regional contraindication, meaning massage may continue as long as the affected area is not treated. Therefore, massage can continue in areas other than the affected area as long as the patient has also been referred to or has already seen a physician for treatment.