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HRCI SPHR Exam Questions
Page 6 of 60
101.
Which performance-appraisal method uses critical incident reviews, essay reviews, and field reviews?
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Narrative method
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Behavioral method
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Rating method
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Comparison method
Correct answer: Narrative method
Narrative method is the correct answer because it is the method of performance appraisal which requires managers to describe the employee's performance. These methods include critical incident, essay, and field reviews.
The behavioral method uses the job description to create dimensions that represent the most important requirements of the job.
Rating methods used in performance appraisal include rating scales and checklists.
Comparison appraisal methods compare the performance of individuals or employees to each other.
102.
Formative evaluation is a process used to:
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Test content prior to delivery to ensure it will result in the desired behavior
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Evaluate responses from employee training feedback for modification
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Perform a needs assessment
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Perform a job analysis related to training
Correct answer: Test content prior to delivery to ensure it will result in the desired behavior
Formative evaluation is a process that involves previewing or testing the content of the training program prior to rolling it out to ensure that participation in the training program will result in the desired behaviors. This type of evaluation is done during the design phase of a program. Examples of formative evaluations are needs assessments, speaking with subject matter experts, job analyses, pilot testing, and pretesting.
103.
There are four basic types of application forms used in the employment application process. Which type of application reduces bias in the screening process?
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Weighted employment application
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Job-specific employment application
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Long-form employment application
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Short-form employment application
Correct answer: Weighted employment application
The weighted employment application is used during the screening process to help reduce bias by giving more points, or weights, for important functions and skills that are needed for the job, and less points for less important functions and skills.
104.
What percentage of substance abusers are currently employed?
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70%
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10%
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32%
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90%
Correct answer: 70%
Research by the National Council on Alcohol & Drug Dependence (NCADD) predicts that over 70% of substance abusers are currently employed costing U.S. business over $81 billion annually due to increased absenteeism, increased mistakes/errors, lower productivity/output, decreased morale, increased health-care cost, and higher workers compensation claims.
105.
Which element of performance appraisal is known as a 360-degree review?
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Assessment from internal and external sources
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Supervisor assessment
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Employee self-assessment
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Peer to peer assessment
Correct answer: Assessment from others
A 360 review is a formal version of assessment from others, both within an organization or department and outside of the organization or department. Feedback may be collected from such sources as customers, vendors, supervisors, peers and subordinates.
The other types of assessment are individual assessments that, when combined, make up a 360-degree assessment.
106.
Which of the following is considered an experiential training method?
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Performance-based training
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Socratic seminar
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Case study
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Presentation
Correct answer: Performance-based training
Instructional methods can be categorized as either passive, active, or experiential.
Passive methods allow the learner to listen and absorb the information. Types of passive training include lectures, presentations, and conferences.
Active methods focus on the experience of the learner and include facilitation, case studies, role-playing vestibule, and Socratic seminars.
Experiential training methods provide hands-on experience with real-time situations, including demonstrations, one-on-ones, and performance-based training.
107.
Which level of training may encompass the entire organization or a single division or department?
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Organizational
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Task
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Individual
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Industry
Correct answer: Organizational
Training can take place at any level of an organization—organizational, task, or individual.
Organizational-level training can be applied to the entire organization, a single division or a single department. At the organizational level, training focuses on future needs of the business.
Task-level training is training focused on tasks in a single job category.
With individual-level training, the performance of individual employees is addressed.
108.
What are the four identified dimensions of intrinsic motivation based on psychological empowerment theory?
Select all that apply. There are 4 correct answers.
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Meaning
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Competence
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Impact
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Self-determination
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Patience
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Energy
An understanding of psychological empowerment theory is critical for Senior HR professionals. The four dimensions of intrinsic motivation include the following:
- Meaning: How work ties to personal values
- Competence: Knowing the why, the whom, and the how
- Self-determination: Independence within the work
- Impact: Ability to influence outcomes
Having this intrinsic motivation helps workers increase confidence and work more efficiently.
109.
Which of the following best defines integrative bargaining?
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Parties involved collaborate to create a win-win solution for the issues
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Parties involved in the negotiation process have congruent interests
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Parties involved represent their individual demands
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Parties involved in the negotiation process have opposing interests
Correct answer: Parties involved collaborate to create a win-win solution for the issues
Principled bargaining is a negotiation approach in which the parties look at all the issues and collaborate to create win-win solutions for all parties involved. One of the most common of these negotiation approaches is integrative bargaining. Another common principled bargaining strategy, interest-based bargaining, is based on the concept that both sides in the negotiation have similar interests.
Positional bargaining is an approach where each side has a position, and the goal is to win versus creating a win-win solution. Each side will start out with a high or low demand, and concessions are made until an agreement is made somewhere in the middle. This makes the process an adversarial, competitive one.
110.
Which are true regarding strategic relationships?
Select all that apply. There are 4 correct answers.
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They reflect the business plan
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They can determine the success or failure of goals
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They are built between key internal and external stakeholders
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They can create their own subculture
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They control the direction of the programs
Strategic relationships are defined as relationships that work together for the advancement of strategic goals or objectives. In Human Resources, these relationships work together to advance the HR function by ensuring strategic HR goals are accomplished.
These relationships are typically identified as internal and external relationships between key stakeholders. This can include shareholders, employees, management, customers, and the community. Strategic relationships should align with the business plan and have the ability to contribute to the success or failure of the organizational goals. As these relationships are developed, often organizations will begin to see a unique subculture develop both internally and externally. This subculture is influenced by the quality of the relationships.
111.
The startup phase of an organization's life cycle is characterized by:
Select all that apply. There are 3 correct answers.
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Exciting vision and purpose
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Minimal training and established processes
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Employees wearing multiple hats
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Regular and routine activities are proceduralized
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Progress is regularly monitored for status
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Longer-range planning is a focus
Organizations are like people. They move through four different stages of development: startup, growth, maturity, and decline. Just like people, organizations rarely do this in a neat, orderly, and predictable fashion. Below are the four stages:
- The startup phase is the phase of the organization in which it is just beginning. This phase is characterized by an exciting vision and purpose; exciting, charismatic leaders; a hands-on (working) Board; minimal training; employees wearing multiple hats; decisions are often reactive and spontaneous; resources (money, facilities, etc.) are continually sought, sometimes in crisis situations; occasional confusion, frustration, and conflicts can exist about who is doing what, how, and when; people begin to talk about the need for more planning and procedures.
- The growth phase is the phase of the organization that reflects steady growth in which the founder can no longer manage the organization independently. This phase is focused on strengthening internal systems to support growth while expanding services. Leaders focus on managing change as much as on generating new ideas; the Board evolves to more of a policy-Board; different departments and teams are appropriately coordinated for efficiencies; planning is regular and systematic, and focused on goals, roles, and deadlines; progress is regularly monitored for status, learning and continuous improvement; regular and routine activities are proceduralized, and performance management practices are focused on personnel and the organization.
- The maturity phase is the phase of the organization that focuses on sustaining momentum while avoiding bureaucracy. It is characterized by a focus on creativity and innovation; management priorities are on succession planning and risk management; increased learning opportunity; leaders seek to successfully duplicate their business model; longer-range planning is a focus (3-5 years); priority continues to be on managing change and transformation.
- The decline phase is the phase of the organization in which the organization is characterized by inefficiency and bureaucracy. In this stage, leaders seek to streamline and create ideas to rebrand in order to survive. This may include the development of new products, workforce reductions, or other cost-cutting methods. Failure to be successful will result in acquisition or closing.
112.
Employee X was diagnosed with pneumoconiosis, which was caused by his employment as a coal miner. Which act will provide Employee X with benefits?
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BLBA
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LHWCA
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EEOICPA
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FECA
Correct answer: BLBA
Each of the answer choices refers to a piece of federal legislation protecting workers in the federal government, the longshoring industry, coal mines, and the Department of Energy.
Employee X would be eligible for benefits under the BLBA. The Black Lung Benefits Act (BLBA) provides compensation to coal miners who are totally disabled by pneumoconiosis arising out of coal mine employment, and to survivors of coal miners whose deaths are attributable to the disease. The Act also provides eligible miners with medical coverage for the treatment of lung diseases related to pneumoconiosis.
The Energy Employees Occupational Illness Compensation Program Act (EEOICPA) was enacted in October 2000. Part B of the EEOICPA, effective on July 31, 2001, compensates current or former employees (or their survivors) of the Department of Energy (DOE), its predecessor agencies, and certain of its vendors, contractors and subcontractors, who were diagnosed with a radiogenic cancer, chronic beryllium disease, beryllium sensitivity, or chronic silicosis, as a result of exposure to radiation, beryllium, or silica while employed at covered facilities.was enacted to provide compensation for employees who are exposed to excessive radiation while producing or testing
The Federal Employees Compensation Act (FECA) was enacted to provide workers' compensation coverage to federal and postal workers for employment-related injuries and occupational diseases.
The Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act (LHWCA) was enacted to provide workers' compensation coverage to maritime workers for employment-related injuries and occupational diseases while navigating U.S. waters or while on piers, docks, or terminals.
113.
Which of the following hazards is listed as OSHA's second priority?
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Catastrophes and fatal accidents
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Imminent danger
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Complaints and referrals
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Programmed high-hazard inspections
Correct answer: Catastrophes and fatal accidents
OSHA has an established hierarchy of situations to outline inspection priorities, which is outlined below:
- Imminent danger: There is a reasonable certainty that immediate death or serious injury from existing workplace hazards will occur before normal enforcement procedures can take place.
- Catastrophes and fatal accidents: Employers must report fatal accidents or serious injuries resulting in the hospitalization of three or more employees within 8 hours. OSHA will inspect to determine whether any safety violations contributed to the accident.
- Complaints and referrals: Employees may request inspections when they think violations exist that threaten physical harm; OSHA also investigates referrals about hazards from any other source.
- Programmed high-hazard inspections: Based on statistical analysis, OSHA conducts planned inspections of industries or jobs that have high incident rates for death, injury, and illness.
- Follow-up inspections: CSHOs follow up on previously issued citations to ensure that the employer has taken action to correct the violation.
114.
What type of benefit plan is a cash-balance plan?
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A qualified deferred compensation plan
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A non-qualified deferred compensation plan
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A qualified delayed compensation plan
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A defined-contribution plan
Correct answer: A qualified deferred compensation plan
A qualified deferred compensation plan is protected under ERISA because it meets all of ERISA's requirements. Employees are protected from loss of benefits in the event that their employer mismanages their pension funds. A cash-balance plan (CBP) uses a hypothetical personal pension account (PPA), and each month this account is increased by a set rate. The account also accumulates interest, typically related to the interest rate on Treasury bills.
115.
A record retention schedule establishes how long to:
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keep employee records on file
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keep employees active
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record disciplinary actions for employees
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record the time worked of each employee
Correct answer: keep employee records on file
The record of retention establishes a set process for storing and retaining certain types of employee records from applications to termination paperwork. This is required by law and must include information about where, how, and why records are stored and when and how they are destroyed.
116.
Which of the following acts requires all needlestick and sharp injuries to be recorded?
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Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act
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Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act
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Fair Labor Standards Act
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Occupational Safety and Health Act
Correct answer: Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act
The Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act of 2000 mandates that all needlestick and sharp injuries be recorded, requires the involvement of front-line employees in finding safer devices to replace needles and sharps and protects employees who have endured needlestick injuries.
The Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) is a federal law that establishes minimum wages, overtime pay eligibility, recordkeeping, and child labor standards.
The Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) prohibits unlawful discrimination against employees based on their genetic information. The request, requirement, or purchase of genetic information by an employer is prohibited under this act.
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), sets and enforces safety standards for workplaces in all industries.
117.
A balance sheet uses which three indicators to determine financial health?
Select all that apply. There are 3 correct answers.
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Assets
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Liabilities
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Equity
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Net income
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Budgets
As HR professionals, it is important to be able to review and understand basic accounting reports and functions. Basic accounting reports commonly used include balance sheets, income statements, and statements of cash flows.
A balance sheet generally shows three primary things - assets, liabilities, and equity. (Assets = Liabilities + Equity)
An income statement, which is sometimes called a profit & loss (P&L) statement provides information on the organization's revenues, the cost to produce the goods or services, the overhead expenses, and the P&L for the reporting period. (Sales - Expenses = Net Income)
A statement of cash flows shows the amount of money in the bank for the reporting period.
118.
Organizations with this philosophy use compensation to shape the corporate culture and employee behavior by rewarding performance or behavior that moves the organization closer to goal achievement:
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Performance-based philosophy
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Total rewards philosophy
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Entitlement philosophy
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Goal-focused philosophy
Correct answer: Performance-based philosophy
An organization's Total Rewards (TR) philosophy determines what pay is based on–performance or seniority.
A performance-based philosophy uses compensation to reward performance or behavior that moves the organization towards its goals. This use of compensation is only effective when employees understand in what ways their performance has a direct impact on their pay.
An entitlement philosophy rewards seniority or employee longevity. This philosophy creates loyalty to the organization but places performance at a secondary level of importance.
119.
If a bargaining unit has had a valid election during the preceding 12-month period, what type of election bar are they under?
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Statutory bar
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Contract bar
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Blocking bar
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Prior-petition bar
Correct answer: Statutory Bar
There are some circumstances in which the NLRA will not allow elections and places what is called an "election bar." There are several types of election bars:
- Statutory Bar: A statutory bar occurs when a valid election has occurred within the proceeding 12-month period.
- Contract Bar: A contract bar occurs when there is a valid collective bargaining already in place. An election will be barred for the contract period.
- Blocking Bar: A blocking bar occurs when an unfair labor practice charge is pending.
- Certification-Year Bar: A certification year bars an election for at least one year following union certification.
- Voluntary-Recognition Bar: A voluntary-recognition bar occurs when a union has received voluntary recognition from the employer. An election will be barred for a reasonable period of time to negotiate a collective bargaining agreement.
- Prior-Petition Bar: A prior-petition bar occurs when a previous petition for election was withdrawn by the union. In this case, an election will be barred for 6 months.
120.
Which of the following is an appropriate job-related interview question concerning national origin or citizenship?
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Are you authorized to work in the United States?
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Where were your parents born?
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What is your race?
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Are you a U.S. citizen?
Correct answer: Are you authorized to work in the United States?
Asking a candidate if they are authorized to work in the United States is considered an appropriate interview question. Inappropriate interview questions about national origin or citizenship include: Are you a U.S. citizen? Where were you/your parents born? What is your race? What language did you speak in your home when you were growing up?