×

Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

NASM-CES Exam Questions

Page 1 of 25

1.

A Corrective Exercise Specialist performs a static posture assessment of a client and notices deviations in the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC). Which of the following options would they be least likely to observe? 

  • The client has overly pronated feet bilaterally.

  • The client's right iliac crest rests slightly higher than the left.

  • The client exhibits a slight posterior pelvic tilt.

  • The client has an overly arched lower back.

Correct answer: The client has overly pronated feet bilaterally.

While it is plausible that pronation of the feet may affect the LPHC (Lumbo-Pelvic-Hip Complex) through a kinetic chain, it's important to clarify that this question specifically focuses on the observation within the LPHC region itself. Since the point of observation is not the LPHC, this response is correct.

The position of the iliac crest is indicative of the overall pelvic alignment. Any asymmetry in hip levels could potentially be noted when assessing the LPHC. A posterior pelvic tilt represents a deviation from the optimal neutral posture. Ideally, a neutral pelvic tilt is the goal when evaluating the LPHC. An excessively arched lower back is still within the LPHC purview, as the lower back is often referred to as the lumbar spine. In proper posture, both the lower back and pelvis should maintain a neutral alignment, without excessive arching or rounding.

2.

A client with increased flexibility may experience which of the following as it relates to muscles and athletic performance?

  • Decreases the speed/force of contraction required and improves performance

  • Increases the speed/force of contraction required and improves performance

  • Decreases the speed/force of contraction required and decreases performance

  • Increases the speed/force of contraction required and decreases performance

Correct answer: Decreases the speed/force of contraction required and improves performance

Increased flexibility can reduce the speed and force of contraction required for muscle function, leading to improved athletic performance.

In contrast, increased muscle stiffness increases the speed and force of the contraction required for movements and decreases overall athletic performance. 

3.

A client demonstrates a slow decrease in shoulder range of motion over three months. Their movement is severely limited, and they are unable to use their arm in everyday function due to pain. 

Which of the following pathologies is most likely to be affecting this client?

  • Frozen shoulder 

  • Osteoarthritis

  • Shoulder instability

  • Rotator cuff tear

Correct answer: Frozen shoulder 

Frozen shoulder is an inflammatory condition that develops slowly in the shoulder, causing pain and a decrease in range of motion over time. 

Osteoarthritis similarly can result in pain and a loss of range of motion; however, the gradual onset over three months is more consistent with a frozen shoulder. Shoulder instability and a rotator cuff tear would more likely be caused by a sudden injury and is not typically described as a slow loss in range of motion. 

4.

Which of the following would not be an expected impairment observed during a standing push assessment? 

  • Heel rise 

  • Excessive posterior pelvic tilt

  • Trunk rotation

  • Forward head

Correct answer: Heel rise 

The goal of the standing push assessment is to qualitatively assess the performance of a horizontal pushing movement with both arms. The observations will most likely be contained to the pelvis, trunk, shoulders, and head. 

Since the lower body is stationary during this assessment, we do not expect to observe a heel rise with the standing loaded push assessment. 

5.

A client is deciding between three different textures of myofascial rollers: one with a patterned texture, one with a grid pattern, and one with a smooth pattern. Each has the same diameter and roller density. 

Which of the following recommendations should the Corrective Exercise Specialist give this client based on the most up-to-date research? 

  • Choose either the grid or patterned texture rollers

  • Choose the grid roller

  • Choose the smooth roller

  • All of the rollers would have the same effect, any choice would suffice

Correct answer: Choose either the grid or patterned texture rollers

According to research, the patterned and grid-patterned rollers produced greater immediate effects in the localized areas. It is suggested that the textures potentially move the tissues around more than the smooth roller, but this is still continuing to be investigated. 

The smooth roller is postulated in research to have lesser effects than both the grid and pattered texture rollers. 

6.

A client demonstrates a left-sided weight shift during gait and the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following muscles would you expect to be targeted for inhibition on the left side? 

  • Adductors

  • Piriformis

  • Biceps femoris

  • Soleus 

Correct answer: Adductors

In a Corrective Exercise Program for asymmetric weight shift, the following muscles would be targeted for same-side inhibition:

  • Adductors
  • TFL

In contrast, the following muscles would be targeted on the opposite side as the weight shift:

  • Biceps femoris
  • Piriformis
  • Soleus

This allows for the appropriate levels of mobility to be achieved to improve square and movement symmetry.

7.

A client is recovering from a hip flexor injury and is presently receiving treatment from their physical therapist. The Corrective Exercise Specialist expects the client to have difficulty initiating hip flexion during their sessions. 

Which of the following muscles would you least likely to expect to be affected?

  • Vastus lateralis 

  • Rectus femoris

  • Iliopsoas

  • Sartorius

Correct answer: Vastus lateralis 

The vastus lateralis originates on the femur and inserts into the tibial tuberosity of the tibia. It is primarily responsible for knee extension. It does not have any effect on hip flexion and would be least likely to be affected by a hip flexor injury. 

The rectus femoris is one of the quadriceps muscles and plays a role in both knee extension and hip flexion. It may be affected to some extent by a hip flexor injury. The iliopsoas is a primary hip flexor muscle, and it is often directly affected by a hip flexor injury. The sartorius is another muscle that assists in hip flexion and is relatively more likely to be affected by a hip flexor injury.

8.

Which of the following inhibitory techniques would you most likely expect to be performed in a client exhibiting knee varus? 

  • Adductor magnus 

  • Psoas 

  • Quadriceps

  • Soleus

Correct answer: Adductor magnus 

In the case of knee varus (knees turning out), key regions to inhibit utilizing self-myofascial rolling include:

  • Adductor magnus
  • Piriformis
  • TFL
  • Biceps femoris (long head) 

9.

Which of the following training scenarios is the best example of the pelvo-ocular reflex?

  • Anterior pelvic tilt was observed in a client with a forward head during a squat

  • Running on a treadmill with occasional head turns to follow visual stimuli

  • Static lunges with an emphasis on keeping the eyes fixed on a specific point in the environment

  • Cycling on a stationary bike while maintaining a steady gaze on a fixed point ahead

Correct answer: Anterior pelvic tilt was observed in a client with a forward head during a squat

The pelvo-ocular reflex is a neuromotor response in which anterior rotation of the pelvis occurs with forward head posture. 

Running on a treadmill and turning the head challenges the vestibular system in balance; however, this is not an example of the pelvo-ocular reflex. Keeping a fixed gaze on a specific point during lunges and biking is a method to improve balance, not elicit the pelvo-ocular reflex. 

10.

A client reports discomfort with neck flexion, rotation, and side bending. The Corrective Exercise Specialist refers the client to their physical therapist and suspects, based on the client's complaints, that dysfunction in which of the following muscles may be directly contributing to these issues?

  • Sternocleidomastoid 

  • Spinalis capitis

  • Pectoralis major

  • Lower trapezius 

Correct answer: Sternocleidomastoid 

The sternocleidomastoid (SCM) muscle plays a significant role in neck flexion, rotation, and side bending. Dysfunction in the SCM can lead to limitations in these movements, which is why the Corrective Exercise Specialist suspects its involvement.

The spinalis capitis is a cervical muscle but is responsible for spinal extension, not flexion, in addition to rotation and lateral flexion. The pectoralis major is a chest muscle and is not directly related to the movements of the neck. The lower trapezius is primarily responsible for scapular depression and also does not directly relate to movements of the neck. 

11.

A client prepares for a running workout and is instructed to perform dynamic stretching. Which of the following options would be the best in this scenario? 

  • Standing alternating knee hugs

  • Lunge with rotation

  • Medicine ball chop

  • Standing hamstring stretch

Correct answer: Standing alternating knee hugs

Dynamic stretching should be specific to the task and reflect the more complex movement to be performed during the bulk of the workout. In this case, the workout is centered around running, which involves significant hip and knee flexion. A knee hug involves controlled hip and knee flexion while in an upright posture. 

Lunging, while also incorporating hip and knee flexion, is not as specific to running as standing alternating knee hugs. Running also does not involve a significant rotational component. Therefore, the rotation with the lunge as well as the medicine ball chop is not specific to running. 

A standing hamstring stretch is an example of a static stretch, not a dynamic stretch as indicated in the question.

12.

Which of the following scenarios would be the best example of pattern overload?

  • A client with postural imbalances performs a shoulder press exercise incorrectly, leading to overactive trapezius muscles over time

  • A client who performs the same exercise, such as bench presses, with the exact same weight, sets, and repetitions during every workout session

  • A client who incorporates flexibility and mobility exercises into their training program to improve joint range of motion

  • A client who takes regular breaks and avoids high-intensity training to prevent overuse injuries

Correct answer: A client with postural imbalances performs a shoulder press exercise incorrectly, leading to overactive trapezius muscles over time

The scenario involves a client repeatedly performing a shoulder press exercise. This repetition of a specific movement pattern (shoulder pressing) can lead to pattern overload when it's done incorrectly over time. This ultimately leads to overactive muscles, the trapezius, as a result of pattern overload. 

A varied and balanced training routine that avoids excessive repetition of the same exercise or movement pattern is not the same as pattern overload. A client incorporating flexibility and mobility exercises does not represent pattern overload. Taking regular breaks and avoiding high intensity exercises is an example of avoiding overuse injuries, not pattern overload. 

13.

It is important to assess a client thoroughly in order to fully understand their quality of movement and compensations. Which of the following scenarios regarding pattern overload is true?

  • Pattern overload can lead to imbalances and injuries when clients excessively use the same movement patterns and muscle groups.

  • Pattern overload occurs when clients perform a wide variety of exercises regularly, enhancing their overall fitness.

  • Pattern overload is primarily a concern for experienced athletes.

  • Pattern overload is a rare occurrence and doesn't typically affect clients during exercise routines.

Correct answer: Pattern overload can lead to imbalances and injuries when clients excessively use the same movement patterns and muscle groups.

Pattern overload occurs when a segment of the body is repeatedly moved or chronically held the same way, leading to a state of muscle overactivity. This scenario refers to the repetitive use of the same movement patterns or muscle groups, which can result in imbalances and increase the risk of injuries.

This is a significant consideration in fitness and rehabilitation, affecting clients of various experience levels, not just experienced athletes. Pattern overload is not rare, and performing a wide variety of exercises is generally beneficial as it reduces the risk of pattern overload.

14.

A fitness professional should be aware of synergistic dominance as it relates to their clientele and their movement patterns. Which of the following scenarios best describes this concept? 

  • A client with anterior pelvic tilt relies heavily on their quadriceps when performing squats, neglecting the activation of their hamstrings and glutes

  • A client with neutral posture has difficulty feeling the activation of their deep core muscles during a squat

  • A client with a well-balanced exercise routine evenly works all major muscle groups during each session

  • A client performs yoga regularly, emphasizing flexibility and mobility but neglecting strength training

Correct answer: A client with anterior pelvic tilt relies heavily on their quadriceps when performing squats, neglecting the activation of their hamstrings and glutes

Synergistic dominance describes the process in which a synergist compensates for the prime mover to maintain force production. Poor static malalignments, such as anterior pelvic tilt, alter the length-tension relationship and altered muscle recruitment patterns. In this example, the anterior pelvic tilt decreases the neural drive of the glutes and hamstrings. 

While difficulty feeling a muscle group can be a characteristic of synergistic dominance, there is no postural deficit described that could explain an altered length-tension relationship leading to that compensation. A well-balanced exercise routine does not describe synergistic dominance but, rather, a balanced exercise routine, which is a positive approach to avoiding muscle imbalances. Yoga describes a client's exercise preferences but doesn't address muscle dominance in a specific movement pattern.

15.

A client reports that they work at a computer for over 8 hours a day. Which of the following best describes why a Corrective Exercise Specialist may ask basic general lifestyle questions?

  • To gain insights into the client's daily habits and identify potential posture or musculoskeletal issues

  • To determine if the client has ergonomic office equipment and offer suggestions

  • To assess the client's ability to sit for extended periods

  • To determine baseline athletic performance

Correct answer: To gain insights into the client's daily habits and identify potential posture or musculoskeletal issues

Asking basic general lifestyle questions, especially in response to a client's report of extensive computer work, is essential for Corrective Exercise Specialists. It helps them gain insights into the client's daily habits and working conditions, allowing them to identify and address potential posture and musculoskeletal issues.

It is not the goal of the Corrective Exercise Specialist to recommend ergonomic office equipment during the subjective portion of the intake. While it is insightful to learn about a client's ability to work for extended periods, it is not the main goal of this conversation. The goal is to gather insight into their daily habits and postures. A baseline athletic performance assessment is performed during the dynamic posture and movement assessment portions of the session.

16.

A Corrective Exercise Specialist is programming a workout routine to help their client achieve more optimal shoulder function and stability. The client is instructed to perform a banded shoulder rotation exercise during the warm-up. 

Which of the following muscles performs external rotation of the shoulder? 

  • Infraspinatus

  • Pectoralis major

  • Latissimus dorsi

  • Teres major 

Correct answer: Infraspinatus

The infraspinatus muscle is one of the key muscles responsible for external rotation of the shoulder joint. It is part of the rotator cuff muscles and plays a significant role in stabilizing and rotating the shoulder externally.

The pectoralis major is primarily responsible for actions like shoulder flexion, adduction, and internal rotation. The latissimus dorsi is responsible for various movements of the shoulder, including adduction, extension, and medial rotation, but not external rotation. The teres major muscle contributes to the action of shoulder extension and adduction, and internal rotation.

17.

A client arrives at their training session complaining of discomfort in their quadriceps after a difficult workout the day prior. The client asks the trainer if they are able to gently stretch the muscles for relief. The trainer suspects that the muscle may be acutely strained. 

Which of the following responses would be the best in this scenario?   

  • I recommend avoiding stretching the quadriceps right now. It's possible that the muscle is strained. Please see your physical therapist. 

  • Stretching the quadriceps is an excellent idea; it will help relieve the discomfort and improve blood flow.

  • You should definitely stretch the quadriceps vigorously to work out any knots and relieve the discomfort.

  • Stretching the quadriceps may or may not help; it's worth a try to see if it provides relief.

Correct answer: I recommend avoiding stretching the quadriceps right now. It's possible that the muscle is strained. Please see your physical therapist. 

An acute muscle strain is a contraindication for stretching and should be evaluated by a physical therapist. It is incorrect to suggest to the client additional stretching, especially into discomfort, as it may lead to additional tissue damage.

18.

A client with a history of sacroiliac joint dysfunction arrives at their first session with a Corrective Exercise Specialist. They no longer report pain but still believe that their posture is impaired. 

Which of the following would the Corrective Exercise Specialist least likely expect to observe during the session? 

  • Impaired balance

  • Asymmetrical muscle strength

  • Asymmetrical hip mobility 

  • Excessive lumbar extension with squatting

Correct answer: Impaired balance

Impaired balance may originate from other neurological causes, such as an injury or a vestibular impairment, not dysfunction of the sacroiliac joint. 

A fitness professional can expect a client with sacroiliac joint dysfunction to demonstrate muscle imbalances in strength/mobility, neuromotor weakness, and decreased motor control with transitional, dynamic, and functional movements. Excessive lumbar extension with squats is a common movement compensation in clients with decreased motor control with functional movements. 

19.

A client exhibiting underactive and lengthened rectus abdominus muscles is most likely to demonstrate which overactive and shortened muscle groups in the lumbo-pelvic-hip-complex and lower body?

  • Gastrocnemius 

  • Latissimus dorsi

  • Transverse abdominus 

  • Scalenes

Correct answer: Gastrocnemius 

In the lower body and lumbo-pelvic-hip-complex, typically with a lengthened rectus abdominus, will demonstrate overactive and shortened gastrocnemius muscles. 

The latissimus dorsi and scalenes are muscle groups of the upper, not lower extremity or lumbo-pelvic-hip-complex. The transverse abdominus is more commonly known for being an underactive/lengthened muscle group, not overactive and shortened.

20.

A client with an ankle restriction demonstrates anterior pelvic tilt and excessive forward trunk lean with the overhead squat assessment. You perform a mobility assessment and find that the client has restricted thoracic and ankle mobility. You decide to perform the heels-elevated modification. 

Which of the following do you most likely expect to observe?

  • Reduction in forward trunk lean

  • Increase in anterior pelvic tilt

  • No changes in posture 

  • Reduce squat depth

Correct answer: Reduction in forward trunk lean

Elevating the heels increases the amount of plantarflexion that the ankle begins, thus reducing the influence of the foot and ankle complex on squat movement. This can overall reduce the amount of compensatory trunk lean occurring and potentially improve anterior pelvic tilt by improving upright posture without overly arching the lower back. 

The squat depth would likely increase, not decrease, due to the heels-elevated modification by improving the total amount of ankle mobility available for the movement.

×