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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

NASM-CES Exam Questions

Page 3 of 25

41.

Which of the following options correctly describes the "elastic limit" of a muscle? 

  • A client presses into a stretch into a point of discomfort. The muscle can return to its original length without causing damage or injury.

  • A client stretches a muscle beyond its normal range, leading to microscopic damage to muscle fibers.

  • A client stretches a muscle to any extent without any risk of injury or damage.

  • A client stretches a muscle to the physiological limit past the point of discomfort. 

Correct answer: A client presses into a stretch into a point of discomfort. The muscle can return to its original length without causing damage or injury.

The elastic limit is defined as the minimum amount of stress placed on a tissue to elicit permanent strain. Anything further than the elastic limit could cause the tissue to not return to its original length and contribute to strains and sprains. 

Pushing a muscle past the point of discomfort, causing damage to muscle fibers, is not the correct definition of the elastic limit. 

42.

A client receives myofascial mobilization while at a physical therapy appointment. Which of the following statements regarding the physiological mechanisms of Instrument-assisted soft tissue mobilization (IASTM) is false?

  • IASTM can be used by fitness professionals

  • IASTM induces localized inflammation

  • IASTM stimulates connective tissue remolding 

  • IASTM may improve short-term flexibility and mobility

Correct answer: IASTM can used by fitness professionals

IASTM is a myofascial technique that should be performed only by a licensed healthcare provider who has been trained on the tools. 

IASTM is has been suggested to induce localized inflammation to restart the healing process, as well as stimulate tissue remolding. Evidence suggests that it may improve short-term flexibility and mobility.

43.

Which of the following is not a reason for the categorization of global musculature into four distinct subsystems? 

  • Categorization based on muscle innervation

  • Easier description and review of functional anatomy

  • A clearer picture of the Regional Independence Model

  • To further assist the Corrective Exercise Specialist with programming during the integration phase

Correct answer: Categorization based on muscle innervation 

The categorization of global musculature into four subsystems is to provide a more organized and systematic approach for understanding and targeting various muscle groups during fitness training and corrective exercise programs. The central nervous system optimizes the selection of muscle synergies, not based on muscle innervation alone. 

The categorization assists in visualizing functional anatomy, the Regional Independence Model, and programming during the integration phase. By breaking down the global musculature into these subsystems, fitness professionals and healthcare practitioners can create tailored exercise regimens, assess functional imbalances, and address specific movement patterns, ultimately leading to more effective and comprehensive training and rehabilitation strategies.

44.

Which of the following options best describes the overall goal of a Corrective Exercise Program in correcting overpronation?

  • Improve the body's ability to exhibit controlled pronation

  • Improve the height of the medial arch

  • Increase ankle supination

  • Eliminate pronation during deceleration

Correct answer: Improve the body's ability to exhibit controlled pronation 

The medial arch of the foot will not structurally change or revert with a corrective exercise program. Rather, the goal is to improve the eccentric control of excessive pronation during impact through strengthening and stabilization. Pronation will not decrease or disappear. 

45.

A client with tight and overactive hip flexors is assessed during the first session by a Corrective Exercise Specialist. Would it be appropriate to perform neuromuscular stretching on the hamstring muscles? 

  • No; neuromuscular stretching should only be applied to muscles that have been determined to be overactive during the assessment. 

  • No; neuromuscular stretching should only be performed on upper extremity muscles during the first session. 

  • Yes; overactive hip flexors indicate hamstring dysfunction, and neuromuscular stretching would help to reduce any discomfort. 

  • Yes; overactive hip flexors indicate overactive hamstrings, thus justifying neuromuscular stretching of that muscle group.

Correct answer: No; neuromuscular stretching should only be applied to muscles that have been determined to be overactive during the assessment. 

It is inappropriate to apply neuromuscular stretching to muscles that have not been properly assessed. 

Overactive and tight hip flexors would likely indicate lengthened hamstring muscles, not overactive hamstrings. This was not assessed or mentioned in this question. Therefore, it is not appropriate to attempt to apply neuromuscular stretching. 

46.

A client performs a depth jump assessment in order to identify potential impairment for jumping and landing tasks. Which of the following statements regarding the standard procedures for this assessment is false? 

  • Instruct the client to perform the maximum number of jumps upon landing

  • The client begins by standing on a 12-inch box

  • Instruct the individual to hop off the box and land with both feet 

  • Instruct the client to quickly jump up for maximum height upon landing

Correct answer: Instruct the client to perform the maximum number of jumps upon landing

The client must be instructed to jump up for maximum height upon landing for a single jump. They may repeat the entire procedure for multiple attempts. However, it is incorrect to attempt the maximum number of jumps upon landing. 

47.

Which of the following scenarios would not require a referral to a medical professional as it relates to the client's mental health?

  • The client reports increased weakness

  • The client reports instances of excessive worrying 

  • The client reports significant changes in sleeping habits

  • The client describes an intense fear of or concern about their appearance 

Correct answer: The client reports increased weakness

Generalized weakness is not a symptom of compromised mental health that requires a referral to a medical professional. However, if it is accompanied by other symptoms, such as low energy, fear, substance abuse, or nutritional habit changes, it should be escalated to a medical professional for further diagnostics and treatment. 

48.

Which of the following options is not a local mechanical effect of direct roller pressure?

  • Temporarily increases the myofascial restriction 

  • Causes thixotropy 

  • Promotes fluid changes

  • Stimulates cellular responses 

Correct answer: Temporarily increases the myofascial restriction 

Myofascial rolling causes thixotrpy (reduced viscosity), reduces myofascial restrictions, promotes fluid changes, and stimulates cellular responses. 

It does not increase myofascial restrictions in any way. The mechanical effect of direct roller pressure is generally associated with reducing tension and increasing blood flow in the targeted areas, which can lead to temporary relief and improved flexibility.

49.

A client is instructed to perform a gait assessment during their first session with a Corrective Exercise Specialist. Which of the following statements regarding the difference between the gait and the overhead squat assessment is true?  

  • The gait assessment exclusively addresses patterns in real-world scenarios, while the overhead squat assessment is used to assess postural impairments. 

  • The gait assessment primarily focuses on lower body mechanics, while the overhead squat assessment evaluates bodyweight strength. 

  • The overhead squat assessment is solely concerned with upper body movements, whereas the gait assessment examines the entire body's range of motion.

  • Both assessments primarily concentrate on lower body mechanics, but the gait assessment involves dynamic movements, while the overhead squat assessment is static.

Correct answer: The gait assessment exclusively addresses patterns in real-world scenarios, while the overhead squat assessment is used to assess postural impairments. 

The gait assessment is utilized to assess real-world scenarios such as walking, which will further inform a client's ability to run and perform tasks that are sport-specific. The overhead squat is meant to assess dynamic postural impairments of the upper and lower body. 

The gait assessment primarily focuses on lower body mechanics, while the overhead squat assessment evaluates the total body's compensation in both the upper and lower body. 

50.

A client performs a standing overhead dumbbell press assessment in order to assess the strength and stability of certain body segments. Which of the following is not an area of focus for this assessment?

  • Balance

  • Scapula

  • Lumbo pelvic hip complex 

  • Cervical spine

Correct answer: Balance

A standing overhead dumbbell press is meant to evaluate upper extremity strength and stability of the lumbo pelvic hip complex, scapula, and cervical spine. 

Balance is not a primary area of focus for this movement assessment.

51.

The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for powerful movements of the upper extremity. Which of the following exercises targets a muscle innervated by this nerve?

  • Bicep curls

  • Front raises

  • Tricep extensions 

  • Shoulder press

Correct answer: Bicep curls

Bicep curls directly target the biceps brachii, a muscle of the upper arm that is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve.

Front raises and shoulder presses work the deltoid muscle, which is primarily innervated by the axillary nerve. Tricep extensions target the tricep muscle, which is primarily innervated by the radial nerve. 

52.

A client performing a standing push assessment using a cable machine has difficulty completing 10 full repetitions with a light amount of weight. Which of the following would be the best next step in this scenario? 

  • Instruct the client to stand in a wider split stance

  • Instruct the client to perform a push-up

  • Move onto the standing pull assessment

  • Skip to the mobility assessment

Correct answer: Instruct the client to stand in a wider split stance

If the client is having difficulty performing the standing push assessment, there are two options to modify the motion. One is to stand with a wider split stance to increase the stability of the lumbopelvic hip complex. Another option is to perform the pushing movement seated on an upright chest-press machine. 

A push-up is not an appropriate modification in this scenario. Skipping the movement assessment altogether to the standing pull or to the mobility assessment is incorrect as a modification needs to be provided in order to complete the movement assessment. 

53.

A client is measured to have a 15-degree shift in Q angle in both knees. Which of the following observations would you most likely expect during your session with this client? 

  • Knee valgus

  • Knee varus

  • Heel rise during a squat

  • Anterior pelvic tilt

Correct answer: Knee valgus

The Q angle is a measure of the angle formed by the intersection of two lines: one drawn from the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) to the center of the patella, and the other from the center of the patella to the tibial tubercle. An increase in the Q angle can contribute to knee valgus, which is a medial collapse or inward movement of the knee.

Heel rise and anterior pelvic tilt and less likely to be affected by an increase in Q angles.

54.

Which of the following best explains why elevating the heels may improve an athlete's performance during an overhead squat assessment?

  • Enhanced ankle mobility

  • Increased quadriceps engagement

  • Core activation

  • Reduced knee stress

Correct answer: Enhanced ankle mobility

Elevating the heels facilitates better ankle dorsiflexion, allowing for a greater range of motion and improved form during the overhead squat. Adequate ankle dorsiflexion promotes a more upright posture during the squat.

While elevating the heels can indeed shift the load toward the quadriceps, the primary benefit of heel elevation during an overhead squat is related to improved ankle mobility. While core activation is important in various exercises, particularly during squats, the primary purpose of elevating the heels in an overhead squat is to address ankle mobility issues.

Elevating the heels primarily allows for improved dorsiflexion, leading to a better squat position, and indirectly contributing to reduced stress on the knees. However, the direct effect on ankle mobility is the key reason for using heel elevation during an overhead squat assessment, not reducing overall knee stress.

55.

Which of the following scenarios is the best example of a mobility restriction?

  • Difficulty in reaching down to tie shoelaces due to tightness in the hamstrings

  • Inability to complete the last full repetition of a bench press due to weakness

  • Feeling fatigued after a high-intensity interval training (HIIT) session

  • Having sore muscles a day after a full-body strength training workout

Correct answer: Difficulty in reaching down to tie shoelaces due to tightness in the hamstrings

A mobility restriction is the inability to move a joint through a full range of motion. In this scenario, the hamstrings are preventing the person from fully utilizing their hip flexion range of motion. 

The other options are examples of muscular weakness or reduced endurance, rather than a mobility restriction. 

56.

A client demonstrates feet turning out throughout the movement assessments of his first session with a Corrective Exercise Specialist. The client, during their second session, performs isolated strengthening consistent with the activate phase of the Corrective Exercise Continuum. 

Which of the following activities would you most likely expect this client to perform?

  • Standing calf raises with internal rotation

  • Seated great toe extension

  • Seated ankle dorsiflexion and internal rotation

  • Seated calf raises with external rotation

Correct answer: Standing calf raises with internal rotation

Key activation exercises for the feet turn-out impairment must target the medial gastrocnemius with tibial internal rotation to target the medial gastrocnemius. 

Seated calf raises target the soleus, not the gastrocnemius. Great toe extension and ankle dorsiflexion are not targets of activation exercises in the feet turn-out impairment. 

57.

A client attempts to describe a myofascial therapy that is commonly practiced in Asian and Middle Eastern cultures. She states that it is used to promote the movement of blood and other fluids through the tissues. 

Which of the following options best fits this description?

  • Cupping

  • Acupuncture

  • Aromatherapy

  • Reflexology

Correct answer: Cupping

Cupping therapy is a practice where glass or plastic cups are applied to the skin, creating suction. This suction can promote increased blood flow to the area and is known for leaving circular marks on the skin due to the suction effect. It is commonly practiced in Asian and Middle Eastern cultures and has recently become more popular in the United States. 

Acupuncture involves inserting fine needles into specific points on the body to stimulate these points and encourage the flow of energy. While acupuncture has various therapeutic effects, promoting the movement of blood and other fluids through tissues is not its primary purpose.

Aromatherapy is a holistic healing practice that uses essential oils and their aromas to promote physical and emotional well-being. While it can have a relaxing effect and improve mood, it does not directly involve promoting the movement of blood and other fluids through tissues.

Reflexology is a therapeutic practice that involves applying pressure to specific points on the hands and feet to stimulate corresponding areas or organs in the body. While it can have a positive impact on blood circulation and overall wellness, its primary focus is not on promoting the movement of blood and fluids through tissues as described in the question.

58.

Which of the following options best describes the Corrective Exercise Specialist's role in addressing muscle imbalances as a result of joint positioning and poor movement adaptations?

  • Strengthen underactive muscles, inhibit and lengthen shortened muscles, and integrate these corrections into functional movement patterns

  • Strengthening overactive muscles, inhibiting and lengthening shortened muscles, and integrating these corrections into functional movement patterns

  • Strengthening underactive muscles and prescribing medications to alleviate pain

  • Strengthen underactive muscles, inhibit lengthened muscles, and integrate these corrections into a training routine

Correct answer: Strengthen underactive muscles, inhibit and lengthen shortened muscles, and integrate these corrections into functional movement patterns

Corrective Exercise Specialists aim to address muscle imbalances through this comprehensive approach. 

It is incorrect to strengthen overactive muscles instead of underactive ones. Corrective Exercise Specialists primarily address underactive muscles to restore balance. Corrective Exercise Specialists typically do not prescribe medications; their focus is on exercise-based solutions. Inhibiting lengthened muscles is incorrect, as lengthened muscles are typically underactive. 

59.

A client you are training recently suffered from a knee injury and arrives to their session ready to continue with the leg workout. As a Corrective Exercise Specialist, which of the following is the best course of action?

  • Switch the day's focus to the upper body

  • Continue the workout as planned

  • Modify the workout to avoid knee valgus 

  • Assess the movement dysfunction and program accordingly 

Correct answer: Switch the day's focus to the upper body

Corrective exercise strategies may be applied post-injury after the client has received treatment and clearance from a healthcare provider to return to normal activity. It is inappropriate to, in any scenario, diagnose or treat an injury. In this case, the client must receive clearance from their healthcare provider before continuing with their lower body program. It is most appropriate to avoid using the injured limb until the client receives medical attention.

60.

A client is instructed to target the medial gastrocnemius muscle during the strengthening portion of their corrective exercise program. Which of the following options best targets this muscle group?

  • Seated plantarflexion and ankle inversion

  • Seated calf raises 

  • Standing calf raises with the heel hanging off of a step

  • Step-ups with a focus on the ball of the foot

Correct answer: Seated plantarflexion and ankle inversion

In a seated position, the ankle points downward and inward, targeting the medial aspect of the gastrocnemius. The gastrocnemius is a powerful muscle responsible for ankle plantarflexion during explosive athletic movements as well as functional activities. 

Seated calf raises target the soleus muscle more effectively, not the medial gastrocnemius. Standing calf raises with the ankle off of a step increases the range of motion for the exercise. However, it does not target the medial gastrocnemius more effectively. Step-ups with a focus on the ball of the foot may activate the gastrocnemius more effectively. However, they do not target the medial aspect of that muscle group.

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