×

Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

NASM-CES Exam Questions

Page 9 of 25

161.

A client performing a Corrective Exercise Program to address an anterior pelvic tilt performs several activities to improve hip extension. Which of the following activities would you most likely expect to be included in their program?

  • Myofascial rolling of the quadriceps 

  • Activation of the quadriceps

  • Myofascial rolling of the gluteus medius 

  • Activation of the piriformis

Correct answer: Myofascial rolling of the quadriceps 

In order to improve the anterior pelvic tilt and hip extension, the client may be instructed to inhibit the muscles crossing the anterior (front) of the pelvis that limit hip extension range of motion. These muscles include the psoas as well as the quadriceps. This may be followed by activation exercises of the hip extensors, such as the gluteus medius or maximus.

The piriformis would not be a target of activation to improve hip extension. 

162.

A client asks if the Golgi tendon organs are in effect during a static stretch. Which of the following options would be the best response in this scenario? 

  • No, Golgi tendon organs are more active during dynamic stretching.

  • Yes, Golgi tendon organs play a crucial role in maintaining muscle tension during a static stretch.

  • Yes, Golgi tendon organs play a critical role in reciprocal inhibition during a static stretch. 

  • No, Golgi tendon organs are more active during neuromuscular stretching. 

Correct answer: No, Golgi tendon organs are more active during dynamic stretching. 

Golgi tendon organs are not highly sensitive to the tension associated with static stretching. It is suggested that contributions to muscle relaxation with these structures are more likely to occur with dynamic stretching that uses large ranges of motion. 

Golgi tendon organs are therefore not activated during a static stretch or involved with reciprocal inhibition (this is more a characteristic of active stretching) 

163.

A client is afraid of developing a stress fracture after a difficult workout and complains of soreness along his lower leg. Which of the following would be the best response in this scenario? 

  • Educate the patient that stress fractures are the result of repetitive load over time. Soreness to a certain extent is expected after a workout. 

  • Recommend the client see a medical provider to be evaluated for stress fractures since a fitness professional cannot diagnose an injury

  • Advise the client to decrease the load of his workout to reduce the risk of developing a stress fracture

  • Perform special testing in order to diagnose a stress fracture

Correct answer: Educate the patient that stress fractures are the result of repetitive load over time. Soreness to a certain extent is expected after a workout. 

A stress fracture is a term used to describe the instance when the bone sustains a fracture from repetitive submaximal loading, not a single event or workout as described in this scenario. 

The Corrective Exercise Specialist is not allowed to diagnose or treat medical conditions. In this scenario, the client is experiencing a normal amount of muscle soreness after a workout. If the soreness does not resolve within a reasonable amount of time, then the client should be referred to a medical professional.

164.

Which of the following scenarios is the best example of the stretch-shortening cycle?

  • An athlete crouches down prior to jumping up for a basketball

  • A client performs a static hamstring stretch to improve flexibility

  • A cyclist maintaining a consistent pedal cadence during a long-distance ride

  • A yoga practitioner holding a deep static stretch for an extended period

Correct answer: An athlete crouches down prior to jumping up for a basketball 

Athletes in sports like basketball, volleyball, and track and field use the stretch-shortening cycle when performing vertical jumps. They crouch down (eccentric phase) and then explosively extend their legs (concentric phase) to jump as high as possible. 

Static stretching and yoga involve holding a stretch position without rapid eccentric and concentric muscle actions. Cycling primarily involves repetitive concentric muscle actions (shortening of muscles) during the pedal strokes, without the rapid eccentric and concentric actions characteristic of the stretch-shortening cycle.

165.

Which of the following is not a critical component during the assessment stage of an initial session with a client?

  • Targeted corrective exercise strategies

  • Intake screening

  • Static postural assessment

  • Movement assessments

Correct answer: Targeted corrective exercise strategies

Targeted corrective exercise strategies are more appropriate for the later interventional stages of a client session, not during the assessment stage. During the assessment stage, it is critical to collect as much data as possible in order to create a tailored program with optimal corrective exercise strategies. 

During the assessment stage, it is critical to design a safe, individualized corrective exercise program that includes the client intake screening, static postural assessments, movement assessments, and targeted mobility assessments.

166.

An athlete performs a seated resisted marching exercise prior to their sprinting workout. He brings his knees as high as he can against a band for 3 sets of 30 seconds. Which of the following of the Corrective Exercise Continuum would best describe this technique?

  • Activate

  • Lengthen

  • Inhibit

  • Integrate 

Correct answer: Activate 

A sprinter must use their hip flexors in an explosive and powerful way during a sprint. Performing a resisted hip flexor exercise in a seated position is a way to fully isolate that muscle group and strengthen it in a targeted way. 

Inhibitory techniques would involve myofascial release such as foam rolling. Lengthening techniques increase the range of motion through activities such as stretching. Integration techniques involve functionally progressive dynamic movements. 

167.

A Corrective Exercise Specialist completes the assessment portion of a nervous new client. Which of the following would be the best way to explain the findings of the assessments to this client? 

  • Use plain language and visual aids to explain the assessment results, emphasizing the client's strengths and areas needing improvement

  • Avoid discussing the assessment results altogether, as it may increase the client's anxiety

  • Present the findings in a brief and vague manner to avoid overwhelming the nervous client

  • Provide a detailed technical analysis of the assessments, focusing on scientific terminology and statistics rather than negative language

Correct answer: Use plain language and visual aids to explain the assessment results, emphasizing the client's strengths and areas needing improvement

It's essential to communicate in a clear and straightforward manner. Using plain language and visual aids can make the assessment findings more accessible and less intimidating. A Corrective Exercise Specialist should aim to create an environment that is free from judgment and provides a baseline understanding of how the body prefers to move. 

While it's important not to overwhelm a nervous client, providing vague information can lead to misunderstandings and may not offer the client a clear path for improvement. It's more helpful to provide meaningful information in an understandable way.

The assessment results are critical for developing an effective corrective exercise plan, and avoiding this discussion would hinder progress. Instead, the specialist should find a suitable way to communicate the findings that takes the client's nervousness into consideration.

While technical details are important, using complex scientific terminology and statistics may overwhelm and confuse the client, especially if they are already anxious.

168.

A client has difficulty performing a movement assessment with the arms over the head. The Corrective Exercise Specialist observes scapular dyskinesia. Which of the following observations would be most likely in this scenario? 

  • The client's scapula does not elevate with arm elevation.

  • The client's scapula elevates with arm elevation.

  • The client's scapula is winging at rest.

  • The client's scapula is abducted at rest.

Correct answer: The client's scapula does not elevate with arm elevation.

During movements like shoulder flexion, the scapula and humerus work together to maintain proper alignment and avoid impingement of structures in the shoulder joint. In the case of scapular dyskinesia, the scapula does not move in a normal fashion during humeral elevation. 

In normal scapular humoral rhythm, the scapula should elevate with arm elevation. Scapular positioning at rest, whether it is winging or abduction, does not describe dyskinesia but, rather, a static postural impairment.

169.

A client brags about how difficult it is to use a high-density roller and that he can withstand the pain with ease. Which of the following statements regarding the density of rollers is true? 

  • The most effective roller is the one that a client will use the most regularly. 

  • The most effective roller is a high-density roller; the most effective way to inhibit muscle tension. 

  • Individuals must start with soft rollers, then work up to a high-density roller.

  • Medium density rollers are the most effective for client use. 

Correct answer: The most effective roller is the one that a client will use the most regularly. 

It is not the goal to move up to a different density roller over time; this is entirely based on personal preferences, with the most important factor being consistency with their program. The goal should never be to cause or induce a significant amount of pain or discomfort as myofascial techniques work to influence the nervous system. 

High-density rollers may potentially exhibit increased pressure as compared to softer ones. However, increasing pressure is not the goal of myofascial rolling, as it may interfere with the overall relaxation of the structures and reduce the effectiveness of the techniques.

170.

A client exclaims that myofascial rolling is a safe technique for everyone to perform. As the Corrective Exercise Specialist, you explain why it can be potentially dangerous for clients with certain conditions. 

Which of the following options best explains why this is? 

  • Myofascial rolling may exacerbate the effects of positional changes and direct pressure to vulnerable areas. 

  • Myofascial rolling is always safe, and there are no conditions that make it potentially dangerous.

  • Myofascial rolling may suddenly cause a client to feel dizzy with positional changes.

  • Myofascial rolling is considered a high-intensity exercise for some populations.

Correct answer: Myofascial rolling may exacerbate the effects of positional changes and direct pressure to vulnerable areas. 

Myofascial rolling can potentially be dangerous for individuals with certain health conditions because it may worsen the effects of positional changes and direct pressure on vulnerable areas. Conditions include recent injuries/surgeries, osteoporosis, pregnancy, and skin conditions. 

Myofascial rolling is not a high-intensity exercise that strains the cardiovascular system. Dizziness during myofascial rolling can be a concern for individuals with certain health conditions, such as orthostatic hypotension, vertigo, or balance issues. However, it's not the only potential risk associated with myofascial rolling, and it doesn't address the broader range of issues that could make this technique potentially dangerous for specific clients.

171.

The ankle and subtalar joint perform coupled movements throughout gross ankle motion. Which of the following statements correctly describes the coupled motions of these joints? 

  • Dorsiflexion is associated with subtalar eversion, plantarflexion is associated with subtalar inversion

  • Dorsiflexion is associated with subtalar inversion, plantarflexion is associated with subtalar eversion

  • Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion are both associated with subtalar inversion and eversion equally, depending on the functional movement

  • Dorsiflexion is associated with subtalar plantarflexion, subtalar inversion is associated with ankle eversion

Correct answer: Dorsiflexion is associated with subtalar eversion, plantarflexion is associated with subtalar inversion

Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion are associated with coupled motions of the subtalar joint. Dorsiflexion is associated with subtalar eversion while plantarflexion is associated with subtalar inversion.

172.

A client reports that they have a torn quadriceps tendon and has been cleared for exercise. Based on your understanding of the extensor mechanism, which of the following best explains why you should proceed with caution?

  • The quadriceps tendon is a component of the extensor mechanism and aids in knee extension.

  • The quadriceps tendon indirectly influences the extensor mechanism and may cause rotational issues.

  • The quadriceps tendon will influence ankle control and single-leg stability.

  • The extensor mechanism is affiliated with the patellofemoral tendon, not the quadriceps tendon.

Correct answer: The quadriceps tendon is a component of the extensor mechanism and aids in knee extension. 

The extensor mechanism is composed of the patellofemoral articulation, patellar tendon, quadriceps tendon, and tibial tubercle that all work together to produce concentric, eccentric, and isometric actions at the knee. Because the client has impaired function at one of these structures due to a previous injury, we can expect the client to demonstrate impaired knee function and weakness. 

The quadriceps tendon affects knee extension control due to the extensor mechanism, not ankle control or rotation.

173.

A Corrective Exercise Specialist instructs their client on how to use a roller ball on their quadriceps muscle after a difficult workout. Which of the following options best describes this technique as it relates to the Corrective Exercise Continuum?

  • Inhibit

  • Lengthen

  • Activate

  • Integrate

Correct answer: Inhibit

A roller ball is a common self-myofascial technique that is used to inhibit or modulate the tension in muscle fibers. In this scenario, the client is using the roller ball to help decrease the tension in his quadriceps post-workout and inhibit the overactive muscles. 

Lengthen would involve stretching the quadriceps in order to improve flexibility and range of motion. Activate is incorrect because this typically involves some form of strengthening or activation techniques. Integration is incorrect because it typically refers to the process of incorporating and combining various movements, exercises, and patterns into a holistic and functional approach.

174.

A fitness professional notices a movement impairment while observing their client perform a seated shoulder press. Which of the following observations is most likely? 

  • The client arches their back excessively during the lift.

  • The client's knees are slightly bent during the exercise.

  • The client performs the exercise with a neutral spine and controlled breathing.

  • The client has difficulty completing the final repetition. 

Correct answer: The client arches their back excessively during the lift.

A movement impairment is defined as a state in which the structural integrity of the human movement system is compromised because the components are out of alignment, causing the body to make compensations that put the client at a higher risk of injury. Excessive arching of the back during a seated shoulder press can be a common movement impairment. It may indicate poor core stability and can increase the risk of lower back strain or injury.

Bent knees, if not excessive, might not significantly affect the exercise. A neutral spine and controlled breathing are positive and indicate that the client is using proper form and technique. It is unlikely to be the "most likely" cause of a movement impairment. Exhibiting difficulty during the final repetition does not give enough information to determine if a movement impairment is present.

175.

A weighted front raise exercise involves a movement known as shoulder flexion. Which of the following muscles does not flex the shoulder?

  • Pectoralis minor 

  • Anterior deltoid 

  • Pectoralis major 

  • Biceps brachii

Correct answer: Pectoralis minor 

The pectoralis minor is primarily responsible for protracting the scapula, eccentrically retracting the scapula, and stabilizing the shoulder girdle. It is not involved in shoulder flexion. 

The anterior deltoid initiates shoulder flexion motion, while the pectoralis major and long head of the biceps brachii contribute by flexing the shoulder, enabling various degrees of movement in the shoulder joint. 

176.

A client undergoing assessment testing during their first session with a Corrective Exercise Specialist demonstrates a forward trunk lean and knee valgus during the gait testing. Which of the following mobility tests would be most appropriate in this scenario? 

  • Modified Thomas Test

  • Ankle flexibility 

  • Dynamic mobility assessment 

  • Lateral trunk flexion

Correct answer: Modified Thomas Test

A forward trunk lean and knee valgus would indicate impairments of the lumbopelvic hip complex. In this scenario, mobility tests such as the Modified Thomas test would be the most appropriate to measure hip mobility and range of motion. 

Ankle and trunk range of motion would not be an appropriate way to assess the forward trunk lean and knee valgus. A dynamic mobility assessment is not a standard mobility test performed. 

177.

A fitness professional prescribes an exercise program to address the altered reciprocal inhibition of their client's posture. The client presents with a rounded upper back and spends most of their day sitting at a computer. 

Which of the following options would you most likely see in their exercise program?

  • Focus on strengthening the muscles of the mid and upper back

  • Emphasis on strengthening the chest and shoulder muscles

  • Exercises targeting the hip flexors and quadriceps

  • Stretching and mobility work for the lower back

Correct answer: Focus on strengthening the muscles of the mid and upper back

When a client presents with a rounded upper back, it's often associated with a posture-related issue, such as excessive tightness in the chest and shoulder muscles and weakness in the mid and upper back muscles. Altered reciprocal inhibition refers to the process where tight or overactive muscles inhibit the function of opposing, weaker muscles. In this scenario, addressing the rounded upper back would typically involve exercises that focus on strengthening the mid and upper back.

Emphasizing chest and shoulder muscle strengthening would exacerbate the issue by further tightening the overactive muscles. Targeting hip flexors and quadriceps is not directly related to addressing a rounded upper back. Stretching and mobility work for the lower back does not specifically target the primary issue of a rounded upper back and altered reciprocal inhibition.

178.

A client who has never used a roller before is having difficulty choosing one and asks the Corrective Exercise Specialist for a research-backed opinion on which to select. Which of the following statements regarding roller density is true? 

  • A soft-density roller is best for beginners. High-density rollers may increase the perception of pain.

  • A moderate-density roller is best for beginners. High-density rollers may decrease the perception of pain. 

  • A high-density roller maximizes the pressure applied and will achieve the best results. 

  • A high-density roller decreases the perception of pain, leading to increased joint mobility.

Correct answer: A soft-density roller is best for beginners. High-density rollers may increase the perception of pain. 

A soft-density roller is appropriate for beginners, as it offers a milder experience, allowing them to ease into foam rolling and myofascial release without overwhelming discomfort. While a moderate-density roller is another good option for this client, because they are a beginner, a soft roller would be the best recommendation to maximize their outcomes. 

In contrast, high-density rollers are not recommended for beginners, as they can be more painful and intense to use. Though they can potentially exert more pressure than soft or moderate density rollers, research suggests that it does not lead to more beneficial outcomes. 

179.

A client undergoes a traditional movement assessment during their first session with a Corrective Exercise Specialist. Which of the following would be least likely performed during a traditional movement assessment?

  • Standing row

  • Overhead squat

  • Single leg squat

  • Split squat

Correct answer: Standing row

A standing row is an example of a loaded assessment, not a traditional movement assessment. During a traditional movement assessment, only the client's body weight is used. A standing row would need some form of external load. 

180.

Which of the following is not a reason to choose neuromuscular stretching over static stretching?

  • Neuromuscular stretching has the potential to increase muscular power.

  • Neuromuscular stretching is equally as effective at increasing ROM as compared to static stretching.

  • Neuromuscular stretching has a reduced negative effect on muscular power.

  • Some studies have found neuromuscular stretching more effective than static stretching at increasing ROM.

Correct answer: Neuromuscular stretching has the potential to increase muscular power.

Neuromuscular stretching has the potential to have a reduced negative effect on muscular power, not increase it. Due to the prolonged lengthened posture of static stretching, it has been postulated that it can lead to decreases in muscle power. Thus, making neuromuscular stretching a more favorable choice when it comes to athletic performance. 

Studies have also shown that neuromuscular stretching can be equally as effective at increasing ROM as compared to static stretching and, in some cases, even more effective overall.

×