NASM-CPT Exam Questions

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41.

Which of the following best describes agility?

  • Short bursts of movement that involve a change of direction, speed, or cadence

  • The ability to react to a stimulus with an appropriate amount of muscular response without hesitation

  • The straight-ahead velocity of an individual

  • Quick, powerful movements involving an eccentric contraction immediately followed by an explosive concentric contraction

Correct answer: Short bursts of movement that involve a change of direction, speed, or cadence

SAQ training refers to speed, agility, and quickness. Together, these three components can help an individual with either sport-specific or general fitness goals.

Specifically, agility refers to short bursts of movement that involve a change of direction, speed, or cadence. It requires a constant management of acceleration, deceleration, and stabilization in all planes of motion. By training one's body to effectively control eccentric forces in all planes of motion, the risk of injury is greatly reduced.

42.

What stage of cardiorespiratory training should pregnant people primarily exercise in?

  • Stage I

  • Stage II

  • Cardiovascular exercise is not recommended

  • Stage III

Correct answer: Stage I

For pregnant people, cardiorespiratory training should consist primarily of stage I and only enter stage II with a physician's advice. People who have not exercised before pregnancy can begin with 15 minutes of continuous aerobic activity and gradually progress to 30 minutes of low to moderate aerobic activity.

43.

Which connective tissue is responsible for attaching muscle to bone?

  • Tendons

  • Ligaments

  • Synergists

  • Stabilizers

Correct answer: Tendons

Tendons are the tissues that connect muscle to bone. They serve as an anchor for muscles, allowing force production. Tendons are flexible but inelastic cords of strong, fibrous collagen tissue.

Ligaments are the connective tissue that connects bone to bone. 

Because muscles are recruited as groups, many muscles will transmit force onto their respective bones, creating movement at the joints. This synergistic action of multiple muscles to produce movement around a joint is known as a force-couple relationship.

Synergists are the muscles responsible for assisting the prime mover during a joint action. Stabilizers are the muscles responsible for minimizing unwanted movement while the prime mover and synergist work.

44.

During a stretch, which of the following is happening to sarcomeres within the muscle?

  • The sarcomeres lengthen 

  • The sarcomeres shorten 

  • The sarcomeres stay the same length 

  • The sarcomeres contract and lengthen simultaneously

Correct answer: The sarcomeres lengthen

When a muscle is stretched, the overlap within the sarcomeres of the thick and thin filaments decreases, allowing the muscle fibers to elongate.

When a muscle is contracted (shortened), the overlap within the sarcomeres of the thick and thin filaments increases.

45.

Which of the following is a potential effect of excessive intake of magnesium?

  • Diarrhea

  • Nerve damage

  • Kidney stones

  • Loss of appetite

Correct answer: Diarrhea

Dietary reference intake (DRI) values for nutrients provide good guidelines for what constitutes an adequate intake of a nutrient. However, excess intake of mineral elements can also cause health problems. For example, excess intake of magnesium can lead to diarrhea.

46.

All of the following are considered very low carbohydrate diets, except:

  • South Beach diet

  • Atkins diet

  • Protein power plan

  • Ketogenic diet

Correct answer: South Beach diet

Weight gain is a result of repeatedly eating more calories than are used. An excess of any nutrient, carbohydrate, fat, protein, or alcohol over daily calorie needs will cause weight gain. There are many diets individuals have used to achieve their weight-loss goals, some of which emphasize very-low carbohydrate consumption (<21% carbohydrates daily). These include the Atkins diet, the protein power plan, and the ketogenic diet.

The South Beach diet is considered a low-carbohydrate diet (21-42% carbohydrates daily).

47.

The patella is considered to be which type of bone?

  • Sesamoid bone

  • Flat bone

  • Irregular bone

  • Short bone

Correct answer: Sesamoid bone

Sesamoid bones are small bones that are installed in a joint capsule. They can also exist where a tendon crosses over a joint. They can act like a pulley system to provide leverage through a tendon's range of motion to help generate force. The patella is an example of this within the quadriceps tendon.

Short bones are cube-like bones, whose width is almost equal to their length. They maximize shock absorption because of their spongy bone tissue. Examples of short bones include the carpals of the hands and tarsals of the feet.

Flat bones are made of a thin layer of spongy bone tissue enclosed by two thin layers of compact bone tissue. They protect internal organs such as the brain and heart and are also attachment sites for muscles. Examples of flat bones include the sternum, cranial bones, ribs, ilium, and scapulae.

Irregular bones are bones that serve unique purposes and have unique shapes, thus not falling into any other category. Examples of irregular bones include the vertebrae, pelvic bones, and certain facial bones.

48.

Which of the following is a leading cause of muscle imbalance?

  • Increased emotional stress

  • Increased muscular oxygenation

  • Increased hydration levels

  • Increased arthrokinematics

Correct answer: Increased emotional stress

Muscle imbalances can be caused by a variety of mechanisms, including (but not limited to) repetitive movement, sedentary lifestyle, and trauma.

Emotional stress can cause altered reciprocal inhibition due to reduced exercise and other forms of self-care and an increased need of nutrients that promote proper muscle length.

Increased muscular oxygenation, increased hydration levels, and increased arthrokinematics will not cause muscle imbalance.

49.

All of the following are acute variables of a training program, except:

  • Equipment

  • Exercise selection

  • Tempo

  • Training volume

Correct answer: Equipment

Training programs require acute variables to be safe and effective. Acute variables encourage specific adaptations by placing varying amounts of stress on various areas of the body.

Repetitions, sets, intensity, tempo, rest interval, training volume, training frequency, training duration, and exercise selection are all acute variables of a training program. Together, they specify how each exercise is to be performed.

Equipment is not one of the acute variables but is included in exercise selection.

50.

Within the framework of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, which of the following supersets designated for Phase 2 effectively combine stability and strength-oriented objectives for the upper body?

  • Push-ups and bench press

  • Neutral grip machine cable row and pronated grip machine cable row

  • Romanian deadlift and single-leg Romanian deadlift

  • Sit-ups and hanging leg raises

Correct answer: Push-ups and bench press

In the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, Phase 2 focuses on strength endurance by combining strength training exercises with stabilization exercises in a superset format. This approach not only enhances muscular endurance and strength but also improves the neuromuscular efficiency of stabilization muscles. For the upper body, the combination of exercises that effectively target both stability-focused and strength-focused outcomes is crucial.

Push-ups are a quintessential stability exercise that engages not just the pectoral muscles but also the deltoids, triceps, and the entire core as stabilizers. This exercise requires the body to maintain a plank position throughout, which challenges and develops core stability and upper body endurance.

The bench press, on the other hand, is a strength-focused exercise targeting primarily the pectoral muscles, triceps, and anterior deltoids. When performed on a bench, it allows the individual to lift heavier weights than what would be possible in a more unstable environment, focusing on building muscle mass and strength.

The pairing of push-ups with bench press in a superset allows for an effective combination of stability and strength training for the upper body. This superset ensures that the stabilizing muscles activated during the push-ups are immediately called upon to perform under increased loads during the bench press, enhancing both the functional stability and strength of the upper body.

The other answer options are explained as follows:

  • Neutral grip machine cable row and pronated grip machine cable row: While this combination targets the back muscles from slightly different angles, both exercises are more strength-oriented, with limited emphasis on stability. Machines generally provide more stability than free weights, reducing the demand on stabilizing muscles.
  • Romanian deadlift and single-leg Romanian deadlift: This pairing focuses on the lower body and primarily targets the hamstrings and glutes. The single-leg version does introduce a stability component by challenging balance, but both exercises are predominantly lower-body focused and do not directly address the upper body stability and strength combination.
  • Sit-ups and hanging leg raises: Both exercises are core-focused, with the hanging leg raises adding a significant stability challenge due to the hanging position. However, they do not directly target upper body strength in the manner that combines significant load bearing as required in the OPT model Phase 2 for upper body exercises.

The superset of push-ups and bench press uniquely fulfills the requirements of Phase 2 in the OPT model for the upper body by effectively combining stability and strength training within a single set. This pairing not only promotes muscular endurance and strength gains but also ensures a comprehensive upper body workout that addresses both the stabilizing muscles and the primary movers.

51.

Which of the following is not a valid reason for personal trainers to maintain detailed progress notes for their clients?

  • Progress notes offer complete legal protection if litigation is initiated by a client

  • Keeping detailed notes assists in identifying patterns that could influence future sessions

  • They aid in the continuity of training in case another trainer needs to take over the client’s sessions

  • Progress notes can be used to motivate clients by showing them tangible results of their efforts

Correct answer: Progress notes offer complete legal protection if litigation is initiated by a client

The statement that progress notes offer complete legal protection if litigation is initiated by a client is not a valid reason for maintaining detailed progress notes because, while these notes can provide important documentation that may help in a legal scenario by showing due diligence and standard of care, they do not offer complete legal protection. Legal protection in such cases often depends on broader aspects including adherence to professional standards, effective communication, client consent, and overall conduct of the trainer, not solely on the documentation of progress notes.

By documenting the client's responses to various exercises and their progress over time, trainers can identify patterns and trends that may inform adjustments to the training program. This helps in optimizing the workout plan to better meet the client's needs and goals, making this practice beneficial for effective personal training.

Detailed progress notes ensure that if a client needs to work with a different trainer (due to scheduling changes, the original trainer being unavailable, etc.), the new trainer can seamlessly continue the training program. The notes provide insights into what has been done previously, the client’s capabilities, and any special considerations necessary, facilitating a smooth transition and continuous progress.

Clients can become more motivated when they see documented evidence of their progress, such as improvements in strength, endurance, weight changes, or other fitness goals. This tangible proof can be very motivating and encouraging, helping clients to stay engaged and committed to their fitness journey.

Maintaining detailed progress notes is a crucial practice for personal trainers, not for providing complete legal protection, but for enhancing the training process through better program adjustments, ensuring continuity with different trainers, and motivating clients by documenting and reflecting on their progress. These records help in delivering a more personalized and effective training service, contributing to the overall success and satisfaction of the client.

52.

What is the recommended method for an individual to self-monitor effectively?

  • Maintaining a daily written record

  • Compiling a detailed monthly report of activities and outcomes

  • Engaging in positive self-talk regularly

  • Summarizing achievements and setbacks at the end of each week

Correct answer: Maintaining a daily written record

To improve coaching interventions that change behavior, Certified Personal Trainers need to identify appropriate Behavior Change Techniques (BCTs).

Self-monitoring is an ideal BCT to ensure client consistency and adherence. It can be a simple record of exercise, water intake, or nutrition intake that helps the client bring their attention to their behavior. It can be in the form of a journal or notebook, an app, or a simple document.

Maintaining a daily written record is recommended for effective self-monitoring because it allows for consistent and immediate reflection on daily activities, habits, and responses. This frequent recording helps individuals become more aware of their behaviors, track progress towards goals, and identify patterns or issues that need addressing. Daily entries ensure that no details are overlooked, which can happen with less frequent recording, and they provide a comprehensive overview of the individual's ongoing progress and challenges.

While compiling a monthly report can provide a broader overview of progress and trends, this method lacks the immediacy and granularity of daily records. Important nuances and small daily achievements or setbacks might be forgotten or overlooked by the time a monthly summary is prepared. This can lead to a less accurate and less actionable reflection, potentially hindering timely adjustments in behavior or strategy.

Regular positive self-talk can be beneficial for maintaining motivation and mental health, but it does not serve the same purpose as self-monitoring through written records. Positive self-talk is more about influencing emotional and psychological states and less about tracking specific behaviors or outcomes. Without tangible records, it's challenging to accurately assess progress or determine which specific actions are leading to success or failure.

Weekly summaries, while more frequent than monthly reports, still miss capturing daily insights and fluctuations in behavior and performance. This approach may allow some details to be forgotten over the week, and subtle patterns or issues that could be acted upon more swiftly might be missed. Daily recording provides a more immediate and actionable dataset that helps in making more timely and informed decisions.

For effective self-monitoring, the continuity and detail of maintaining a daily written record are superior to less frequent summarizations or psychological strategies like positive self-talk. These methods, while useful in other contexts, do not provide the same level of detail and immediacy needed for effective self-monitoring and timely adjustments.

53.

What does the Push-Up Test assess?

  • Upper extremity endurance and stabilization

  • Lower extremity agility and stabilization

  • Upper body agility and endurance

  • Muscular endurance of the lower body

Correct answer: Upper extremity endurance and stabilization

The Push-Up Test is ideal for monitoring upper extremity agility and stabilization. 

To perform the Push-Up Test, the client begins by lowering their body to achieve 90 degrees of elbow flexion before returning to the starting position. They repeat this pattern for 60 seconds or until exhaustion. 

All repetitions completed to the appropriate depth should be counted during the 60-second testing period. 

54.

What category of health club is characterized by the absence of front desk personnel, utilizes a key card access system, and provides minimal equipment?

  • Low-cost health club

  • Boutique fitness center

  • Full-service health club

  • Corporate fitness facility

Correct answer: Low-cost health club

A low-cost health club is defined by its affordability, simplified operations, and basic amenities. These clubs typically offer minimal equipment and services compared to higher-end facilities. The absence of front desk personnel and the use of a key card access system help minimize operational costs, allowing these clubs to offer lower membership fees. The limited equipment provided may include essential cardio and strength training machines, with fewer amenities like group fitness classes or personal training options. Despite these limitations, low-cost health clubs aim to provide accessible fitness opportunities to a broader demographic.

Boutique fitness centers are known for their specialized classes, upscale amenities, and personalized services. They often offer premium experiences with high-quality equipment, expert instructors, and a focus on niche fitness trends. The absence of front desk staff and minimal equipment are not characteristic of boutique fitness centers, which prioritize providing a unique and upscale fitness experience.

Full-service health clubs offer a wide range of amenities and services, including extensive equipment options, group fitness classes, personal training, and additional facilities like pools, saunas, and spa services. The absence of front desk staff and minimal equipment does not align with the comprehensive offerings typically associated with full-service health clubs.

Corporate fitness facilities are often located within or near corporate office buildings and are designed to provide convenient fitness options for employees. While they may offer key card access for authorized personnel, they typically provide a variety of equipment and services tailored to the needs of office workers, including comprehensive fitness programs, group classes, and wellness initiatives. The simplicity and affordability associated with low-cost health clubs are not characteristic of corporate fitness facilities, which prioritize employee wellness and productivity.

While low-cost health clubs are characterized by their cost-effective approach and basic amenities, boutique fitness centers, full-service health clubs, and corporate fitness facilities offer more extensive services and amenities that cater to different market segments. The absence of front desk personnel, key card access, and minimal equipment are not indicative of these higher-end facilities.

55.

How is an action plan developed?

  • Establish the nature of the goal and the target date, resources, and daily tasks required to reach the goal

  • Develop an outline of the goal and several steps that can be taken to get there

  • Identify the client's ability to achieve the goal and work through obstacles to the goal

  • Write out instructions for the client to take home to develop a plan for themselves

Correct answer: Establish the nature of the goal and the target date, resources, and daily tasks required to reach the goal

Action plans are the method by which the client will accomplish their goals, and they must use all the details that are included in the goal to identify what steps need to take place to attain it. 

An outline with several steps is not specific enough, and the client should not be expected to develop the action plan on their own. Working through obstacles to the goal is a different strategy than developing an action plan.

56.

Which method is employed by a client when she engages in mental rehearsal of performing a clean and press exercise?

  • Technique imagery

  • Exercise imagery

  • Method imagery

  • Movement imagery

Correct answer: Technique imagery

When a client mentally rehearses performing a clean and press exercise, the method employed is referred to as technique imagery.

This specific form of mental practice involves the individual vividly imagining themselves executing the technical aspects of a physical skill or movement, in this case, the clean and press exercise. The primary focus is on the precision, technique, and form necessary to perform the exercise effectively rather than merely envisioning the physical movement or outcome. Technique imagery is used to enhance the understanding and execution of complex movements, improve motor skills, and increase the effectiveness of physical training by reinforcing neural pathways associated with the desired physical activity.

  • Exercise imagery: This term is broader and less specific than technique imagery. While exercise imagery could involve visualizing the overall experience of exercise or the general act of performing an exercise, it lacks the specificity of focusing on the technical details and precision of movement that technique imagery entails. Exercise imagery might be used for motivation or to enhance enjoyment but does not specifically aim to improve the execution of technical skills.
  • Method imagery: This term is ambiguous and does not accurately describe the process of mentally practicing specific movements or techniques within a physical exercise. While method could refer to a broad range of strategies or approaches, it does not directly imply the focused, detailed visualization of executing a physical skill with precision, which is the hallmark of technique imagery.
  • Movement imagery: Similar to exercise imagery, movement imagery is a broader term that encompasses the visualization of any physical movement. It can include anything from simple movements like walking to complex athletic skills. However, it does not specifically emphasize the technical aspects or the quality of the execution as technique imagery does. Movement imagery can be used for various purposes, including motor learning and performance enhancement, but it does not inherently focus on the fine details of technique.

Technique imagery is the precise term that best describes the method employed when a client engages in mental rehearsal of performing a clean and press exercise, focusing specifically on the visualization of technique and form. The other terms, while related to the concept of mental visualization in physical activities, do not accurately capture the emphasis on technical precision and detailed execution that technique imagery entails.

57.

What is the amortization phase of plyometric training?

  • It occurs between the eccentric and concentric phases and involves dynamic stabilization

  • It occurs between the stabilization and strength phases and involves dynamic flexibility

  • It occurs between the strength and power phases and involves dynamic balance

  • It occurs between the eccentric and strength phases and involves dynamic resistance

Correct answer: It occurs between the eccentric and concentric phases and involves dynamic stabilization

The amortization phase is also known as the second phase of the paradigm, which requires an isometric muscle contraction. The amortization phase is the electromechanical delay between contractions.

The amount of time spent in this phase is inversely related to performance: the shorter the amount of time, the more powerful the response, and vice versa. Therefore, for optimal performance, the amortization phase should be quick.

58.

How long does the alarm reaction stage of general adaptation syndrome (GAS) last?

  • 2 to 3 days

  • 4 to 6 days

  • About 1 week

  • 12 to 24 hours

Correct answer: 2 to 3 days

General adaptation syndrome describes how the body adapts to stress. There are three stages of response to stress, which are the alarm reaction stage, the resistance development stage, and the exhaustion stage.

The alarm stage, which lasts about 2 to 3 days, is when the initial reaction to the imposed demands of exercise takes place. This is where the neuromuscular adaptations of the body, such as improved coordination, occur.

The adaptation phase is when increased functional capacity takes place to adapt to the stressor, such as increasing motor unit recruitment.

The exhaustion phase is when an intolerable stressor produces fatigue and leads to injury or a breakdown in the system. In other words, stress continues beyond the body's ability to adapt, leading to potential physiological and structural breakdown, known as overtraining.

59.

Which of the following dictates the mechanical specificity of the training protocol for a client?

  • A client's fitness goals and physical capabilities

  • A client's ability to recruit and synchronize motor units for firing

  • A client's ability to use the appropriate energy system

  • A client's metabolic function

Correct answer: A client's fitness goals and physical capabilities

The specific adaptation to imposed demands (SAID) principle states that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it. Mechanical specificity refers to the weight and movements placed on the body, also known as resistance and repetitions. Increasing muscular endurance requires lighter resistance and high repetitions, while strength gains require heavier resistance and fewer reps. Therefore, a client's goals and physical capabilities will dictate the activity-specific movement patterns and external forces (weights) that will make up their program.

60.

Why is proper posture considered an indicator of good health?

  • Proper posture ensures that muscles maintain their optimal resting length

  • Correct posture directly strengthens bone density throughout the body

  • Correct posture enables the spine to better communicate with the rest of the body

  • Maintaining proper posture requires less energy expenditure

Correct answer: Proper posture ensures that muscles maintain their optimal resting length

Proper posture is considered an indicator of good health because it ensures that muscles maintain their optimal resting length, which is essential for efficient muscle function and avoiding strain or injury. Good posture aligns the body correctly, distributing weight evenly and minimizing stress on muscles, bones, and joints. This alignment helps prevent the development of musculoskeletal imbalances and reduces the risk of associated pain and injuries. By maintaining proper posture, individuals support their body's natural structure and function, which promotes better overall physical health and well-being.

While maintaining proper posture can contribute to overall skeletal health by promoting better alignment and reducing undue stress on bones, it does not directly strengthen bone density. Bone density is primarily influenced by factors such as nutritional intake (especially calcium and vitamin D), hormonal levels, and weight-bearing exercises that specifically stress bone structures. Posture affects bone health more indirectly by preventing conditions that could lead to bone weakening over time.

While proper posture does help maintain the natural curves of the spine, which can reduce the risk of nerve compression and facilitate smoother nerve function, it does not inherently "improve" communication between the spine and other body parts. Nerve communication is a physiological process influenced by many factors, and while posture can impact overall nerve health, it does not directly enhance neural communication in the way this statement suggests.

Proper posture can indeed lead to more efficient muscle use and lower energy expenditure during activities because it allows the body to move more naturally with less strain. However, the implication that this is a primary health benefit of good posture oversimplifies its broader importance. The main health benefit of proper posture lies in preventing dysfunction and discomfort, rather than significantly altering energy expenditure levels.

Proper posture is crucial for maintaining muscle balance, joint alignment, and overall bodily function, which are essential components of good health. It does not directly influence factors like bone density enhancement, spinal communication in a neurological sense, or dramatically change the body's energy expenditure.