NASM-CPT Exam Questions

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101.

Which of the following best describes the concept of flexibility within the context of physical fitness?

  • The ability to move a joint through normal extension and range of motion

  • The ability to maintain balance when subjected to external forces

  • The capacity for sustained physical effort over a prolonged period

  • The ability to stretch muscles into their optimal posture

Correct answer: The ability to move a joint through normal extension and range of motion

Flexibility, within the context of physical fitness, is defined as the ability to move a joint or series of joints through their full Range Of Motion (ROM) with ease and without pain. This capability is crucial for overall physical function, as it affects the efficiency of movements, helps prevent injuries, and contributes to a balanced and effective posture. 

Flexibility is primarily dependent on several factors, including the elasticity of muscles and tendons, joint structure, and the nervous system's ability to tolerate stretching. It is enhanced through various activities that stretch the muscles, such as yoga, dynamic stretching routines, and specific flexibility exercises.

The other answer options, while maybe related, do not describe the concept of flexibility within the context of physical fitness:

  • The ability to maintain balance when subjected to external forces: This describes balance and stability rather than flexibility. Balance involves controlling the body's center of gravity in relation to its support base, which is essential for maintaining posture and performing various activities. While flexibility can contribute to better balance by allowing a wider range of motion and smoother movement patterns, the concept itself is distinct from the definition of flexibility.
  • The capacity for sustained physical effort over a prolonged period: This definition relates to endurance. Endurance is the ability of muscles to perform continuous work over an extended period. It's a critical component of physical fitness that enables prolonged physical activity, such as running or cycling. Although flexibility can aid in more efficient movement and potentially reduce fatigue, it does not directly equate to the body's capacity for sustained effort.
  • The ability to stretch muscles into their optimal posture: While this statement is closely related to flexibility, it's more accurately described as a benefit or application of being flexible. Stretching muscles into their optimal posture implies improving alignment and reducing the risk of muscle imbalances and injuries. Flexibility facilitates this by allowing greater ease and range in stretching, but the core of flexibility is the movement capacity of joints through their full range, not solely the posture improvement aspect.

Flexibility is specifically about the capacity of joints to move through their intended range of motion fully and efficiently. This is crucial for performing daily activities, reducing the risk of injuries, and maintaining muscular health and balance. The other concepts mentioned—balance and stability, endurance, and the role of stretching in achieving optimal posture—are all important components of physical fitness but do not directly define flexibility.

102.

What is periodization?

  • Periodization is the modification of the program target at specific intervals to create maximum adaptation

  • Periodization is the progression of exercise selection from more stable to less stable within a single training session

  • Periodization is the adjustment of exercise selection based on the client's fatigue level or injury

  • Periodization is the conversion of one exercise to another with similar movements to allow for increased adaptation

Correct answer: Periodization is the modification of the program target at specific intervals to create maximum adaptation

Periodization involves creating phases of training and using different forms of strength training within each phase to avoid injury. Although exercise progression is part of periodization, it does not necessarily occur within a single training session. This term does not refer to changes of exercise based on fatigue or injury, nor does it refer to using similar exercises to increase adaptation.

103.

Which of the following considerations applies to a fitness professional seeking employment at a large-scale commercial fitness club?

  • Focusing on sales

  • Having additional cross-functional responsibilities

  • Having possible membership caps

  • Being responsible for their own client pipeline

Correct answer: Focusing on sales

At a large-scale national club, a fitness professional will not only have to focus on sales as a means of building a reputation but also have little control over scheduled hours. Both factors should be considered before committing to working at a large-scale national club.

104.

How many repetitions of resistance exercise should a client complete during a phase 3 hypertrophy workout?

  • 6-12 repetitions 

  • 8-12 repetitions 

  • 1-5 repetitions 

  • 15-20 repetitions 

Correct answer: 6-12 repetitions

Training in phase 3 (hypertrophy) focuses on maximal muscle growth, with adaptations occurring from high volume and minimal rest. This strategy forces cellular changes that increase muscle size faster than other phases. The optimal number of repetitions for resistance training in phase 3 is 6 to 12.

105.

Which range of repetitions is ideal for power adaptations?

  • 1 to 10 reps

  • 1 to 5 reps

  • 12 to 20 reps

  • 6 to 12 reps

Correct answer: 1 to 10 reps

Power adaptations occur during the final phase of training, after muscle stabilization, hypertrophy, and maximal strength have already been established. Therefore, these repetitions should be done quickly and with great force at 30-45% 1RM for 1 to 10 reps. 

Muscular endurance and stabilization is achieved at 12 to 20 reps, hypertrophy is achieved at 6 to 12 reps, and maximal strength is best achieved at 1 to 5 reps.

106.

If a client is in zone 3 during a cardiorespiratory workout, what RPE equivalent should they be at?

  • 16-17

  • 12-13

  • 14-15 

  • 18-20

Correct answer: 16-17

The Borg scale of rating of perceived exertion (RPE) is scaled from 6 to 20, with 6 being no exertion at all and 20 being maximal exertion. Zone 3 training is nearing maximal exertion, with a client exercising at 86-95% of their HR max; therefore, the RPE equivalent during zone 3 should be 16-17.

107.

What are the two most common sites used to record a pulse?

  • The radial and carotid arteries

  • The radial and femoral arteries

  • The carotid and brachial arteries

  • The temporal and femoral arteries

Correct answer: The radial and carotid arteries

A pulse occurs when blood moves through the arteries in waves as the heart contracts. There are seven major pulse points, where arteries are near the skin's surface and the pulse can be detected by touch. The preferred pulse points are the radial (inside of the wrist) and carotid (side of the windpipe).

The femoral, brachial, and temporal pulse points are more difficult to identify.

108.

Golfer’s elbow is categorized as which type of injury?

  • Pattern overload injury

  • Acute traumatic injury

  • Chronic wear-and-tear injury

  • Compression-related injury

Correct answer: Pattern overload injury

Golfer’s elbow, medically known as medial epicondylitis, is categorized as a pattern overload injury. This type of injury occurs due to repetitive motions that overload certain muscles and tendons, leading to strain and inflammation over time. Specifically, golfer’s elbow results from the excessive use of the muscles in the forearm that enable wrist and finger flexion as well as wrist pronation. It often arises from the repetitive motion of swinging a golf club, which places consistent stress on the tendons attaching to the medial epicondyle of the elbow, but it can also occur from similar actions in other sports or activities.

Below are explanations for the incorrect answer options:

  • Acute traumatic injury: This description is incorrect for golfer’s elbow because the condition does not typically result from a single, sudden event, which characterizes acute traumatic injuries. Instead, golfer’s elbow develops gradually due to the repetitive stress and micro-trauma to the tendons, rather than from an acute or sudden trauma like a fall or collision.
  • Chronic wear-and-tear injury: While golfer’s elbow does involve wear and degradation of the tendon over time, classifying it strictly as a wear-and-tear injury might imply a degenerative process associated more commonly with aging or long-term deterioration, such as seen in osteoarthritis. Golfer’s elbow, on the other hand, is specifically related to the repetitive mechanical overload of certain movements, distinguishing it from general wear-and-tear conditions.
  • Compression-related injury: This type of injury typically results from direct pressure on structures, causing damage or dysfunction. Golfer’s elbow, however, arises from tension and overuse of the tendons, not from compression. The injury mechanism involves strain from repetitive pulling forces, not from compressive forces.

Golfer’s elbow is best described as a pattern overload injury due to its development from repetitive stress and overuse specific to certain muscle movements rather than from acute trauma, generalized wear and tear, or compressive forces. This distinction is important for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment planning.

109.

Which two factors make up an individual's speed?

  • Stride rate and stride length

  • Stride rate and VO2 max

  • VO2 max and stride length

  • Motor unit recruitment and stride length

Correct answer: Stride rate and stride length 

Speed is the body's ability to intentionally move as fast as possible and is determined by stride rate and stride length. Stride rate is the number of strides within a specific amount of time or distance, and stride length is measured when running and refers to the distance covered with one stride.

110.

Which of the following is considered a progression for foam rolling the hamstring muscles?

  • Using a massage ball

  • Using a larger foam roller

  • Bending the knee

  • Placing the foam roller against the wall instead of on the ground

Correct answer: Using a massage ball

Using a massage ball provides a more focal massage for this region when compared to a wide foam roller.

Using a larger foam roller would be less intense than a smaller one. Bending the knee would not be a progression. Placing the foam roller on the wall would not provide adequate pressure. 

111.

Motivational interviewing is defined as which of the following?

  • A method for helping clients determine their own reasons for wanting to change

  • A method of directing a client toward a certain outcome

  • A method of helping a client avoid distractions

  • A method of making a client accept reasonable health goals

Correct answer: A method for helping clients determine their own reasons for wanting to change

Motivational interviewing involves asking clients questions and guiding a conversation so that they determine their reasons for wanting to change. This helps increase the likelihood of making a lasting change in behavior. 

112.

Which of the following motions occurs primarily during the concentric phase of a bench press?

  • Shoulder horizontal adduction

  • Shoulder abduction

  • Shoulder external rotation

  • Scapular retraction

Correct answer: Shoulder horizontal adduction

The concentric phase of a bench press involves lifting the weight upward by pushing it away from the chest. This phase primarily engages the pectoral muscles, triceps, and deltoids, focusing on specific joint movements.

Shoulder horizontal adduction occurs when the arms move horizontally towards the body’s midline. In the context of a bench press, this happens as you push the bar away from the chest, causing the arms to move closer together from a more outspread position. The pectoral muscles play a significant role in this action, bringing the humerus (upper arm) across the chest.

Shoulder abduction is the movement of the arm away from the body's midline, typically raising the arms sideways up to or above shoulder level. This motion is not involved in the bench press, where the movement pattern is almost the opposite. During the bench press, the arms do not move away from the body but rather towards it.

Shoulder external rotation involves rotating the shoulder joint outward, moving the front of the arm away from the body's center. This action isn't a primary movement during the bench press, which instead requires maintaining a stable shoulder position, with minimal external rotation as the bar is pressed upward. External rotation in a bench press would imply an improper form that could potentially lead to shoulder injuries.

Scapular retraction occurs when the shoulder blades move toward each other on the back, which is important in stabilizing the shoulders and maintaining a firm base from which to press during a bench press. However, it is not the primary motion of the exercise itself but more of a supportive action to ensure proper alignment and shoulder stability. The actual movement that lifts the bar is the horizontal adduction of the shoulders, not the retraction of the scapulae.

Understanding these specific movements and their relevance to the bench press helps in accurately analyzing the mechanics of the exercise and ensuring it is performed correctly for maximum effectiveness and safety.

113.

Which of the following balance exercises is a balance-stabilization exercise?

  • Single-leg throw and catch

  • Single-leg squat touchdown

  • Single-leg Romanian deadlift

  • Single-leg squat

Correct answer: Single-leg throw and catch

Balance-stabilization exercises should improve automatic joint stabilization and utilize minimal joint motion. The single-leg throw and catch is an example of a balance-stabilization exercise.

Single-leg squat, single-let squat touchdown, and single-leg Romanian deadlift are examples of balance-strength exercises.

114.

A client has been telling himself for months that he will lose weight, and now he actually believes it and prioritizes tasks to accomplish this goal. The process of turning thoughts into belief is an example of which of the following?

  • Cognitive fusion

  • Positive self-talk

  • Negative self-talk

  • Reverse listing

Correct answer: Cognitive fusion

Cognitive fusion refers to internal thoughts becoming more concrete beliefs. This is exemplified when a client continually uses positive self-talk, then assumes a more positive outlook on life.

Positive self-talk is using positive language as internal dialogue. Negative self-talk is using negative language as internal dialogue. Reverse listing is a technique used to turn negative thoughts into positive ones. 

115.

How do mechanoreceptors function?

  • Mechanoreceptors respond to alterations of touch, pressure, sound, or motion in body tissue

  • Mechanoreceptors respond to pain stimulus by altering neuron sensitivity

  • Mechanoreceptors respond to chemical interactions, including smell and taste

  • Mechanoreceptors respond to light stimulus by transmitting data to the central nervous system

Correct answer: Mechanoreceptors respond to alterations of touch, pressure, sound, or motion in body tissue

Mechanoreceptors are specifically designed to respond to physical pressure within tissues and then communicate via the peripheral nervous system. They respond to outside forces such as touch, pressure, stretching, sound waves, and motion and conduct data through sensory nerves. Mechanoreceptors include muscle spindles, Golgi tendon organs, and joint receptors.

Nociceptors respond to pain stimulus by altering neuron sensitivity. Chemoreceptors respond to chemical interactions, including smell and taste. Photoreceptors respond to light stimulus by transmitting data to the central nervous system.

116.

If an individual demonstrates an arched lower back during a pushing assessment, all of the following muscles are probably overactive, except:

  • Intrinsic core stabilizers 

  • Hip flexors

  • Erector spinae

  • Multifidus

Correct answer: Intrinsic core stabilizers 

If an individual demonstrates an arched lower back during a pushing assessment, the hip flexors and erector spinae are probable overactive muscles causing the movement compensation. The multifidus supports spinal extension and may also be overactive. The intrinsic core stabilizers are the probable underactive muscles in a low back arch compensation due to not being able to brace the core correctly. 

117.

If a fitness professional keeps business records on a monthly basis, all of the following are examples of typical records, except:

  • Number of club member interactions

  • Average income per hour

  • Number of days off

  • Average number of sessions

Correct answer: Number of club member interactions

Business records can be analyzed and used to plan future business successes. By recording factors such as average income per hour, the number of days off, and the average number of sessions, the fitness professional can see where they have been spending their time and how productive they have been.

The number of club member interactions is not necessary to track for business purposes.

118.

When referring to the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, all of the following phases make up the strength component, except:

  • Power

  • Maximal strength

  • Hypertrophy

  • Strength endurance

Correct answer: Power

The Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model involves five major phases. Progression through all five phases is built upon the base of stabilization training (phase 1), which then progresses through to strength training (phases 2-4), and eventually ends with power training (phase 5).

Strength training comprises strength endurance (phase 2), hypertrophy (phase 3), and maximal strength (phase 4). As a fitness professional, it is crucial to have a client properly master each phase before moving on to the next phase to ensure proper adaptations have taken place and to reduce the risk of injury.

119.

In which plane of motion does the lateral tube walking dynamic stretch take place?

  • Frontal

  • Sagittal

  • Transverse

  • Longitudinal

Correct answer: Frontal

The frontal plane is an imaginary plane that divides the body into equal front and back halves. Movements in the frontal plane are lateral flexion, eversion, inversion, abduction, and adduction. Lateral tube walking is a side-to-side movement in the frontal plane.

120.

In which stage of behavioral change is an individual who has recently purchased running shoes but has not commenced exercising?

  • Preparation stage

  • Precontemplation stage

  • Action stage

  • Contemplation stage

Correct answer: Preparation stage

The Preparation stage is one of the stages of the Transtheoretical Model of behavioral change, commonly known as the Stages of Change model. This model describes the phases individuals go through when changing behavior. 

The Preparation stage specifically refers to when an individual has made some small or symbolic steps towards behavioral change but has not fully begun the new behavior. In this scenario, the purchase of running shoes by an individual who has not yet started exercising is a classic example of the Preparation stage. It indicates a commitment to start exercising soon and shows that the person is getting ready to change their behavior, even though they have not started the actual exercise regimen.

Below are explanations for the other answer options:

  • Precontemplation stage: In this stage, individuals are not yet thinking seriously about changing their behavior and may not be aware of the need to change. People in the Precontemplation stage often do not recognize any problem with their current behavior. Thus, someone who has purchased running shoes demonstrates more engagement and awareness than is typical for the Precontemplation stage, as buying shoes indicates recognition of the need to exercise and a thought towards making that change.
  • Action stage: This stage involves the actual modification of behavior, where individuals actively engage in a new behavior to change their lifestyle. It follows the Preparation stage and is characterized by significant effort to adopt new habits and behaviors, such as beginning a regular exercise program. Since the individual in question has purchased running shoes but has not started exercising, they have not yet reached the Action stage.
  • Contemplation stage: In the Contemplation stage, individuals are aware that a problem exists and are seriously thinking about overcoming it but haven't yet made a commitment to take action. They intend to start the new behavior within the foreseeable future. The act of purchasing running shoes, however, suggests that the individual has moved beyond mere contemplation. By investing in equipment necessary for exercise, they have taken a preparatory step toward behavior change, which aligns more closely with the Preparation stage.

The Preparation stage is the correct identification for someone who has shown intent to change behavior by purchasing running shoes but has not yet initiated the new activity of exercising. This stage is crucial, as it represents the transition from planning to taking actual action.