NASM-PES Exam Questions

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21.

Which test has been deemed an accurate assessment method to use with any performance athlete, especially since studies find it to be one of the most useful alternatives to lab-based measures?

  • 12-Minute Walk/Run Test

  • One Mile Test

  • VO2 Max Test

  • Zone Testing

Correct answer: 12-Minute Walk/Run Test

The 12-Minute Walk/Run Test has been deemed an accurate assessment method to use with any performance athlete.

Studies show that this test represents one of the most useful alternatives to lab-based measures for estimating metabolic fitness. 

Age, sex, and fitness level do not seem to alter the validity of the test, allowing it to be used in various populations of athletes. 

22.

To improve the oxygen carrying capacity in a given amount of blood, what must be increased?

  • Amount of hemoglobin

  • Number of alveoli

  • Number of capillaries

  • Amount of macrophages

Correct answer: Amount of hemoglobin

Amount of hemoglobin is correct because hemoglobin is the carrier of oxygen within red blood cells in the bloodstream. Air is drawn into the lungs and in the alveoli gas exchange occurs through diffusion to decrease the concentration of carbon dioxide and increase the concentration of oxygen. The amount of hemoglobin will increase with cardiorespiratory training.

Number of alveoli is incorrect because these structures are in the lungs, not the blood, and are the site of gas exchange.

Number of capillaries is incorrect because these structures are the site of nutrient exchange at the cellular level.

Amount of macrophages is incorrect because these do not carry oxygen.

23.

Push-up sprints are used to develop which of the following?

  • Linear speed

  • Agility

  • Multidirectional speed

  • Power

Correct answer: Linear speed

Push-up sprints are an effective exercise designed to develop linear speed. By incorporating push-ups, which build upper body strength, and sprints, which target lower body power and acceleration, this exercise helps enhance an athlete's ability to quickly move forward in a straight line.

The push-up component of the exercise trains the chest, shoulders, and triceps, while also engaging the core muscles for stabilization. The sprint portion focuses on lower body explosiveness, acceleration, and running mechanics. When combined, these elements contribute to overall improvements in linear speed, making push-up sprints a valuable addition to any speed-focused training program.

24.

Which of the following is not one of the recommended ways to monitor hydration levels?

  • Skinfold test

  • Body mass changes

  • Thirst

  • Urine color

Correct answer: Skinfold test

Monitoring hydration levels is important for athletes to ensure optimal performance and reduce the risk of dehydration. The recommended ways to monitor hydration levels include measuring body weight before and after exercise, monitoring urine color and output, and assessing thirst levels. 

The skinfold test is not a recommended way to monitor hydration levels as it measures body fat percentage rather than hydration status. It involves measuring the thickness of subcutaneous fat at various sites on the body using calipers.

25.

Which of the following types of protein supplements is not considered a "fast" protein?

  • Casein protein

  • Whey protein isolate

  • Hydrolyzed whey protein

  • Pea protein isolate

Correct answer: Casein protein

Protein supplements come in different types, and one way to categorize them is based on their absorption rate. "Fast" proteins are those that are quickly absorbed and digested by the body. These types of proteins are often recommended for post-workout recovery to help rebuild and repair muscle tissue.

Examples of fast protein supplements include whey protein isolate, hydrolyzed whey protein, and pea protein isolate.

One protein supplement that is not considered a "fast" protein is casein protein. Casein protein is a slow-digesting protein that is often recommended as a nighttime supplement or for use during periods of fasting or prolonged time without protein intake.

26.

What is the typical caloric range for strength athletes?

  • 44 to 50 calories per kilogram of body mass per day

  • 24 to 30 calories per kilogram of body mass per day

  • 14 to 20 calories per kilogram of body mass per day

  • 34 to 40 calories per kilogram of body mass per day

Correct answer: 44 to 50 calories per kilogram of body mass per day

Strength athletes require a higher caloric intake to support their energy needs during exercise and to facilitate muscle growth and recovery. The typical caloric range for strength athletes is between 44 to 50 calories per kilogram of body mass per day. 

It is important to note that this range may vary depending on individual factors such as body composition, training intensity, and goals. Additionally, strength athletes may need to adjust their macronutrient intake, particularly protein, to optimize their performance and recovery.

27.

Which of the following is not a possible outcome when the articular aspect of the human movement system becomes dysfunctional?

  • Improved neuromuscular efficiency

  • Tissue fatigue

  • Initiation of the cumulative injury cycle

  • Altered sensorimotor integration

Correct answer: Improved neuromuscular efficiency

Improved neuromuscular efficiency is incorrect because when there are altered joint arthrokinematics, this is more likely to produce a negative effect on the neuromuscular system. Optimal neuromuscular control depends on normal length-tension relationships, normal force-couple relationships and normal joint arthrokinematics. This translates to optimal muscular, neural, and articular functioning respectively.

The other answers are incorrect because they are likely to occur when the articular aspect of the human movement system is altered.

28.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a pre-event or pre-exercise meal?

  • High in fat and fiber

  • High in carbohydrates

  • Moderate in protein

  • Sufficient fluids

Correct answer: High in fat and fiber

A pre-event or pre-exercise meal should not be high in fat or fiber. This is because these nutrients take longer to digest, which can lead to gastrointestinal discomfort during exercise. Ideally, a pre-event meal should be high in carbohydrates, moderate in protein, low in fat, and low in fiber. 

This helps to provide the body with energy for the upcoming exercise and promotes efficient digestion and absorption of nutrients. The specific nutrient requirements and timing of the meal may vary depending on the type and duration of the exercise, as well as the individual's personal preferences and tolerance.

29.

You are using stage training with one of your athletes. Which of the following stages of training focuses on 95–110% at race pace, continuous heart rate training sessions in Zone 3, and inclusion of repeated sprint training?

  • Stage 3

  • Stage 1

  • Stage 2

  • Stage 4

Correct answer: Stage 3

The third stage of stage training is focused on anaerobic power and power-endurance, which is why it incorporates 95–110% at race pace, continuous heart rate training sessions in Zone 3, and repeated sprint training.

Stage 3 usually only has 3–4 training sessions per week. 

One notable exercise is repeated sprint training. Athletes will perform workouts consisting of 5–20 sprints of 5–10 seconds.

30.

An athlete has progressed to the strength level of the OPT model. What adaptations can this athlete expect to occur as a result of this type of training?

I. Improve muscle imbalances

II. Induce cellular changes in muscle

III. The speed at which motor units are excited

IV. Increase load-bearing capabilities of the muscles, tendons, ligaments and joints

V. Increase ability of core musculature to stabilize the spine under heavy loads

  • II, IV and V only

  • I and V only

  • III, IV and V only

  • II and V only

Correct answer: II, IV and V only

II, IV and V only is correct because strength training is designed to enhance stability while greater amounts of stress are placed on the body while increasing muscle size and strength. This stage of training includes strength-endurance training, hypertrophy training, and maximal strength training. As one progresses through the strength stage, the training intensity will increase as the training volume decreases.

I and V only is incorrect because muscle imbalances should be improved before progressing to strength training.

III, IV and V only is incorrect because power training is the method to increase the speed of motor unit recruitment.

II and V only is incorrect because strength training also plays an important part in increasing the ability of the soft tissues to handle large amounts of tension.

31.

You instruct a client to perform a set of the bench press, immediately followed by a set of the suspension trainer push-up, with no break in between. This is an example of which of the following?

  • Super-set

  • Ballistic set

  • Giant set

  • Negative set

Correct answer: Super-set

When you have a client perform a set of the bench press, immediately followed by a set of the suspension trainer push-up, with no break in between; this is an example of a super-set.

The general idea of a super-set is to initially challenge the prime movers (e.g., chest), then immediately challenge the stabilizing muscles (e.g., shoulders and triceps).

In this way, a trainer can elicit a number of benefits including muscular hypertrophy, postural stabilization endurance, muscular strength, etc.

32.

A Sports Performance Coach wants to measure the speed of his basketball athletes. Which sports performance test would be the most appropriate for this population?

  • 3/4-court sprint

  • 30-yard sprint

  • 40-yard sprint

  • Lower-extremity functional test

Correct answer: 3/4-court sprint

3/4-court sprint is correct because the setting and length of this speed and acceleration assessment is specific to the sport of basketball. The distance of this test is from the baseline to the opposite free throw line. Other speed tests such as the 30 or 40 yard dash would serve to measure speed and acceleration as well, but they are not as specific a sports performance test.

30-yard sprint and 40-yard sprint are incorrect because these do not occur on a surface specific to basketball nor represent a distance commonly covered during the sport.

Lower-extremity functional test is incorrect because this is an assessment of lateral speed and agility.

33.

Which of the following is not a consequence for a female athlete with a negative energy balance?

  • Increased endurance

  • Use of lean tissue for fuel

  • Disruption of reproductive function

  • Likely nutrient deficiencies

Correct answer: Increased endurance

Increased endurance is correct because both strength and endurance performance are likely to decrease as a result of negative energy balance. Stable weight and lean mass are the best indicators of adequate energy balance. Negative energy balance can be especially serious for female athletes due to the effect on their reproductive function.

Use of lean tissue for fuel, disruption of reproductive function and likely nutrient deficiencies are incorrect because these are negative consequences for female athletes.

34.

Ted is performing an overhead barbell press for the first time. What position should he be instructed to bring the barbell to at the bottom position of the exercise?

  • In front of the neck

  • Behind the neck

  • Top of the head

  • Pressed out above the head

Correct answer: In front of the neck

In front of the neck is correct because this position is the safest for the athlete and allows the prime movers (anterior and middle heads of the deltoid) to be in a mechanically advantageous position. Bringing the bar down in an anterior position prevents any impingement of the shoulder. The overhead barbell press is a progression of shoulder strength exercises that can be utilized once dumbbell and cable machine variations are perfected.

Behind the neck is incorrect because this may cause impingement of the shoulder or over-stress the rotator cuff muscles.

Top of the head is incorrect because this would not be considered the full range of motion of the exercise.

Pressed out above the head is incorrect because this is the top position of the barbell overhead press exercise.

35.

Disruption in menstrual cycles in females and low serum testosterone levels in males is a result of which of the following?

  • Very low-fat diets

  • Excessive carbohydrate intake

  • Lack of sleep

  • High intake of saturated fat

Correct answer: Very low-fat diets

Low levels of fat intake can lead to hormonal imbalances in both males and females. Disruption of menstrual cycles in females and low serum testosterone levels in males can be caused by very low-fat diets. Fat is necessary for the production of hormones, including sex hormones. When there is not enough fat in the diet, the body may not produce enough hormones, leading to a variety of health issues.

36.

During maximal strength training, all of the following are optional types of exercises except:

  • Resistance training

  • Core

  • Plyometric

  • SAQ

Correct answer: Resistance training

During maximal strength training, resistance training is not an optional type of exercise; rather, it is the primary form of training employed to increase an individual's maximum force production. Maximal strength training typically involves lifting heavy loads at low repetitions to stimulate muscle fiber recruitment and neural adaptations, resulting in greater force production capabilities.

Optional types of exercises that may be incorporated into a maximal strength training program can include:

  • Plyometrics
  • Core
  • SAQ
  • Balance

While these optional types of exercises can be incorporated into a maximal strength training program to enhance overall athletic performance and promote balanced physical development, the primary focus should remain on resistance training. This includes exercises such as squats, deadlifts, bench presses, and other compound movements, which are performed with heavy loads and low repetitions to elicit maximal strength gains.

37.

Darren is performing a dumbbell snatch. In the starting position, where should he place the dumbbell?

  • Between the legs under the shoulders

  • On the side of the leg below the shoulders

  • Between the legs in front of the shoulders

  • On the side of the leg in front of the shoulders

Correct answer: Between the legs under the shoulders

Between the legs under the shoulders is correct because this is an athletic position that allows for the dumbbell to travel in a vertical line to finish above the head. This position will allow the prime movers (gluteus maximus, quadriceps and hamstrings, and back muscles) to apply force in a mechanically advantageous line of pull and minimize rotational, shear, and other forces on the spine. The dumbbell snatch is a total body power exercise that can be learned before the more difficult barbell version.

On the side of the leg below the shoulders is incorrect because this does not allow for a vertical path of the dumbbell.

Between the legs in front of the shoulders is incorrect because this places too much force on the spine and may lead to injury.

On the side of the leg in front of the shoulders is incorrect because this is not a mechanically advantageous position and may lead to injury.

38.

How many ounces of water or sports drink should your client drink for every pound of body mass lost during exercise?

  • 16-24 ounces

  • 8-12 ounces

  • 10-14 ounces

  • 20-30 ounces

Correct answer: 16-24 ounces

The general guideline for rehydration after exercise is to drink 16 to 24 ounces of water or a sports drink for every pound of body weight lost during exercise. This helps to replenish fluids lost through sweat and maintain adequate hydration levels. It is important to weigh yourself before and after exercise to determine the amount of fluid lost and the appropriate amount of fluid to drink for rehydration. Drinking adequate fluids can also help prevent dehydration-related issues such as muscle cramps, fatigue, and decreased performance.

39.

Which of the following strength assessments would be ideal when testing a baseball player?

  • Squat (5-Rep Max) and Pull-Ups

  • 300-Yard Shuttle Test and Timed: Home to First Base

  • Clean and Press and Timed: Home to First Base

  • Sit-Ups and Wall Sits

Correct answer: Squat (5-Rep Max) and Pull-Ups

When testing a baseball player's strength, an ideal combination of assessments would be Squat (5-Rep Max) and Pull-Ups.

The Squat (5-Rep Max) is a great measure of lower body strength and power, which are important for explosive movements like sprinting, jumping, and throwing. In baseball, lower body strength is essential for generating power in the legs and hips, which translates into greater bat speed, throwing velocity, and running speed.

Pull-Ups are a great measure of upper body strength, particularly in the back and arms. In baseball, upper body strength is crucial for throwing, hitting, and fielding, as well as for maintaining good posture and preventing injury.

The 300-Yard Shuttle Test is a fitness assessment that involves running back and forth between two points (usually 25 yards apart) multiple times, evaluating an individual's speed, agility, and anaerobic capacity. Timed: Home to First Base is a measurement used in baseball or softball to assess an athlete's speed by measuring the time taken to run from home plate to first base.

Clean and Press is a compound weightlifting exercise where a barbell is lifted from the floor to the shoulders, followed by pressing it overhead, testing upper body strength, power, and coordination. Timed: Home to First Base is a measurement used in baseball or softball to assess an athlete's speed by measuring the time taken to run from home plate to first base.

Sit-Ups is an abdominal strength and endurance test where an individual lies on their back, bends their knees, and performs repeated forward flexion of the torso, measuring core strength and muscular endurance. Wall Sits is a lower body isometric exercise where an individual sits against a wall with their knees bent at a 90-degree angle and holds the position, evaluating lower body strength, endurance, and static stability.

40.

Blocking distractions and using coping thoughts such as "I can do it!" are examples of which of the following coping strategies?

  • Thought control

  • Rational thinking

  • Time management

  • Task focus

Correct answer: Thought control

Coping strategies are used to deal with stressful situations. One coping strategy that an athlete can use during training or a game is called thought control. This is when an athlete takes stock of their thinking and blocks distractions. They might also use coping thoughts and expressions such as "I can do it!" All of this is done in order to alleviate performance anxiety.