×

Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

NBCOT COTA Exam Questions

Page 10 of 40

181.

What is the difference between criterion-referenced assessments and norm-referenced assessments?

  • Criterion-referenced involves comparing patient results to an established set of data; patient results are compared to those of peers for norm-referenced.

  • Criterion-referenced involves comparing patient results to scores of peers; norm-referenced involves comparisons to pre-established information.

  • Criterion-referenced assessments are interview-style while norm-referenced assessments focus on performance only.

Correct answer: Criterion-referenced involves comparing patient results to an established set of data; patient results are compared to those of peers for norm-referenced.

The results from a criterion-referenced assessment are compared to a fixed set of data/criteria that place patients in a certain category (e.g., no impairment, mild impairment, etc.). The scores from a norm-referenced assessment are compared to another set of scores that are based on a patient's age (and sometimes gender).

182.

What is NOT considered a beneficial treatment for a patient who is receiving OT after undergoing surgery for radial nerve palsy?

  • MCP extension orthosis

  • ADL re-training

  • Strengthening program

  • Active range of motion exercises

Correct answer: MCP extension orthosis

An MCP extension orthosis is an ideal treatment for conservative management of radial nerve palsy. This is not recommended for someone who underwent surgery for radial nerve palsy, as it's not needed.

Someone participating in OT after surgery for radial nerve palsy should receive interventions such as ADL re-training, active range of motion exercises, and a strengthening program. However, the strengthening program should not begin until between 6 and 8 weeks after surgery or until a doctor clears the patient.

183.

What type of feedback should be used to help a patient improve task performance during the cognitive stage of motor learning?

  • Thorough verbal feedback and opportunities for intrinsic learning

  • Less verbal feedback and encouragement to assess their own performance

  • Sparse feedback for errors the patient does not recognize and correct

  • No therapist feedback

Correct answer: Thorough verbal feedback and opportunities for intrinsic learning

The learner in the cognitive stage requires the greatest level of verbal (extrinsic) feedback, since it is the initial stage of learning. The patient should also be encouraged to initiate intrinsic feedback skills, for example with prompting by the therapist to visually compare the movement of an affected limb to the unaffected limb.

The learner in the associated stage should get less verbal feedback and be encouraged to assess their own performance. Proprioceptive feedback, rather than solely visual, is encouraged to assist in learning how a movement or skill should feel when performed accurately.

The learner in the autonomous stage gets sparse feedback only for errors they do not recognize and correct. The focus of this stage is to develop self-assessment skills and the ability to correctly and independently transfer a skill to a different environment.

There is no stage where the therapist should not give any feedback. If the individual does not require any feedback from the therapist, no clinical skill is required and this task should not be addressed by the clinician because the patient is independent with it.

184.

According to an OTA's practice standards, what must a provider do when they receive a referral for services?

  • Give the referral to the supervising OTR

  • Give the referral to the department head

  • Schedule an OT evaluation at the earliest time

Correct answer: Give the referral to the supervising OTR

Since the supervising OTR is responsible for responding to referrals, they are the best person to give the referral to. 

Giving the referral to the department head is stepping outside the chain of command, since the OTR would have the authority to deal with the referral. The OTA would not schedule an evaluation, since this is outside their scope of practice. 

185.

A COTA who is working as a fieldwork educator will have which of the following responsibilities?

Select the three BEST responses.

  • Collaborating with the program director to develop learning objectives

  • Creating professional development plans for students

  • Establishing policies related to fieldwork education programs

  • Completing ACOTE accreditation for their program

  • Conducting scholarly research

  • Traveling weekly to fieldwork sites for evaluations

Academic fieldwork educators are responsible for collaborating with the program director to develop learning objectives, creating professional development plans to enhance student learning, and establishing policies and protocols for their programs. Additional responsibilities of fieldwork educators include assuring that students are providing quality care according to program standards, evaluating and supervising students who are on fieldwork assignments, and completing cost-benefit analyses to support clinical education.

Fieldwork educators are not responsible for accreditation, conducting scholarly research, or making weekly site visits.

186.

A therapist directs her patient through sit-to-stand transfers from various surfaces in his home, transferring from the bedside commode to a wheelchair, a recliner, the patient's bed, and the patient's car. 

What type of practice is this?

  • Variable practice

  • Part practice

  • Blocked practice

  • Distributed practice

Correct answer: Variable practice

Variable practice is the practice of a skill through varying methods, potentially to increase the ability to transfer a skill. A sit-to-stand transfer may be practiced in a variety of contexts during a therapy session, such as from a bedside commode, a wheelchair, a car, and a bed.

Part practice is the segmentation of a skill in order to complete the entire task via a series of parts. An example is segmenting the task of a sit-to-stand transfer into steps (like moving forward in chair, achieving a good base of support, forward trunk translation, push-off of upper extremities).

Blocked practice involves practicing a specific skill repetitively to improve proficiency and independence. An example is practicing a sit-to-stand transfer multiple times in a row.

Distributed practice involves appropriating ample rest breaks that may be at least as long or longer in duration than skill practice.

187.

Which of the following cranial nerves is NOT purely sensory in nature?

  • Cranial Nerve 5

  • Cranial Nerve 1

  • Cranial Nerve 2

  • Cranial Nerve 8

Correct answer: Cranial Nerve 5

The fifth cranial nerve is the trigeminal nerve, which is mixed between sensory and motor to govern chewing. 

The remaining cranial nerves all have sensory functions: the first is the olfactory nerve (smelling), the second is the optic nerve (sight), and the eighth is the vestibulocochlear nerve (body positioning and sound).

188.

What is NOT a developmental consideration for an OTA to keep in mind when assisting with a pediatric evaluation?

Select the three BEST responses.

  • Assess only a child's sensory and motor skills

  • If you see the child in person, skip teacher and family interviews

  • Identify how play activities can be completed as-is rather than modifying

  • Identify family and community supports

  • Observe both structured and spontaneous play opportunities

  • Select activities based on a child's developmental level

It's important to assess a child's motor and sensory skills, but an OTA must also take cognition and psychosocial skills into account. Teacher and family interviews will always give therapists important insight into a child's function, so this should be included in any evaluation. Therapists should always attempt to modify play and leisure activities to better fit the child's abilities and needs. 

The last three statements are true, and should be taken into consideration during all pediatric evaluations.

189.

What practice settings can have an indefinite length of stay (LOS)?

Select the three BEST responses.

  • Clubhouse programs

  • Adult day care

  • Skilled nursing facilities

  • Partial hospitalization programs

  • Forensic settings

  • Long-term hospitals

Clubhouse programs are community-based settings that have open membership for individuals with any type of mental illness. Members play a strong part in programming for clubhouses, and there is no outlined end date for membership. Members can exit and reenter the program at will.

Adult day cares are community-based programs for adults and geriatric individuals with physical or mental health conditions or those considered frail but who are mostly independent. Services are provided on an ongoing basis for individuals who need ongoing support.

Skilled nursing facilities are institutional settings that have short-term and long-term units. While the LOS for short-term units ranges from 2-4 weeks, an individual may reside in a long-term unit for the remainder of their life.

Individuals may remain in partial hospitalization programs (PHPs) for 1 week to 6 months, depending on their diagnosis and the severity of their condition.

LOS in forensic settings varies greatly, as it is determined by a criminal sentence or court-ordered directives.

Long-term hospitals provide institutional care for individuals with chronic conditions whose needs cannot be met through outpatient care. Individuals may remain in long-term hospitals from one month to several years.

190.

An OTA is collaborating with an OTR to determine whether or not a patient is appropriate for heat-based modalities. What health concerns are contraindicated with heat?

Select the three BEST responses.

  • Injuries in the acute or inflammatory stage

  • Lymphedema

  • Neuropathy

  • Diabetes

  • A fracture that was treated without surgery

  • Minor bruising

Heat can aggravate symptoms such as inflammation, so it is not recommended for acute injuries or inflammatory conditions (such as lymphedema) where swelling is common. Neuropathy often causes sensation loss, so heat is also contraindicated with this condition. 

Individuals with diabetes might also have neuropathy (which is contraindicated with heat), but diabetes itself is not considered a contraindication for this type of modality. Patients who have sustained fractures can benefit from heat as long as their fracture is not acute and they have not recently had fixation surgery. Those with an impaired vascular supply should not receive heat modalities, but minor bruising is not contraindicated.

191.

Which type of therapeutic practice style is being used when the clinician provides only momentary rest breaks during an intervention?

  • Massed practice

  • Distributed practice

  • Blocked practice

  • Variable practice

Correct answer: Massed practice

Massed practice provides ample opportunities for therapeutic intervention with only momentary rest breaks. In short, the patient spends very little time resting and the majority of the time practicing skills.

Distributed practice involves offering plenty of rest breaks that may be at least as long or longer in duration than skill practice.

Blocked practice involves practicing a specific skill repetitively to improve proficiency and independence. An example is practicing a sit-to-stand transfer multiple times in a row.

Variable practice is the practice of a skill through varying methods, potentially to increase the ability to transfer a skill. A sit-to-stand transfer may be practiced in a variety of contexts during a therapy session, such as from a bedside commode, from a wheelchair, and from a bed.

192.

A COTA working in a hospital goes to treat their first patient of the day. The patient asks about their medication, stating they have not received the morning dose of their antibiotics yet and are becoming concerned.

According to scope of practice, what member of the healthcare team should the COTA direct this patient to?

  • Registered nurse

  • Audiologist

  • Nurse practitioner

  • Doctor of infection control

Correct answer: Registered nurse

Registered nurses are responsible for dispensing medication, so this is the best provider to assist with this problem.

An audiologist specializes in hearing assessments and interventions; this professional does not have any involvement in medications, so it would not be ideal to refer the patient to an audiologist. Nurse practitioners do have prescriptive abilities, but their primary role is to diagnose, manage, and treat both acute and chronic conditions. They function in a similar role as physicians do, and instruct nurses what dosage to administer to patients. So, while they have knowledge about medication, they are not usually the ones to directly provide it to patients. A doctor specializing in infection control does have prescriptive abilities. However, similar to a nurse practitioner, their primary function is to diagnose, manage, and treat health concerns. Therefore, if they prescribe medication, they give orders to nurses as to dosage and other specifics.

193.

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of lateral epicondylitis?

  • It's known as golfer's elbow

  • Injury at the origin of the tendon

  • Caused by repetitive use of wrist extensors

  • It's known as tennis elbow

Correct answer: It's known as golfer's elbow

Golfer's elbow is a common term for medial epicondylitis.

Lateral epicondylitis is caused by repetitive wrist extension, and the injury is located at the origin of the tendon. It is also referred to as tennis elbow.

194.

An OTA is working with a new child who just turned three. His reports say he is delayed in self-care skills, but what skills should he possess by this age?

  • Putting on a simple shirt, socks, and shoes (sometimes correctly), pulling pants down

  • Pulling off their shirt, putting socks and shoes on

  • Getting dressed and undressed independently

  • Putting arms through armholes

Correct answer: Putting on a simple shirt, socks, and shoes (sometimes correctly), pulling pants down

At 2 years of age, a child typically starts to help with pushing down pants and locating and pushing their arms through a shirt's armholes. They can also take off their shoes.

At 3 years of age, a child can typically pull on a simple shirt as well as shoes and socks, although they may not don the shoes and socks correctly. They can push down their pants and are beginning to fully fasten closures.

At 4 years of age, a child can typically pull off a shirt and don shoes and socks without assistance, although tying shoes is still difficult.

At 5 years of age, a child can get themselves dressed and undressed and now has the fine motor ability to work knots in lacing.

195.

What concept presides during the cognitive stage of learning?

  • What the desired skill is

  • How to best perform a skill

  • How to apply these skills to other situations

  • When to complete a skill

Correct answer: What the desired skill is 

The cognitive stage is characterized by learning a new skill. So, the individual must determine what to do and plan how to learn the new skill so they can begin practicing it.

The associated stage is characterized by consistently performing the new skill. The individual will learn how to best perform a skill to ensure consistent results.

The autonomous stage is characterized by utilizing the skill across environments and situations. The goal is still to maintain a high consistency of performance while learning how to succeed in any circumstances.

When to complete a skill is not a consideration in the stages of motor learning.

196.

Which of the following are considerations that a therapist should factor in when selecting a device for a patient?

Select the three BEST responses.

  • Ease of operations

  • Reliability

  • Safety

  • Aesthetics

  • Family preference

  • Frequency of use

During device selection, a therapist should consider input/output method, portability, safety, reliability, durability, ease of assembly and operation, maintenance, affordability (both present and future), and the patient's readiness for change. 

Aesthetics, family preference, and frequency of use do not play a part in the device selection process.

197.

Which of the following hand disorders is characterized by finger flexion contractures secondary to thickened fascia?

  • Dupuytren's disease

  • Skier's thumb

  • Ape hand deformity

  • De Quervain's

Correct answer: Dupuytren's disease

Dupuytren's disease is thickening of the fascia within the hand that causes the affected fingers to form flexion contractures.

Skier's thumb is an injury to the ulnar collateral ligament of the MCP joint of the thumb.

Ape hand deformity is characterized by IP flexion in the digits and atrophy of the thenar eminence and is caused by a median nerve injury.

De Quervain's is tenosynovitis of the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis, which causes pain and swelling over the radial styloid.

198.

After a posterior-lateral total hip replacement, which type of ADL will require the GREATEST modification?

  • Putting on shoes

  • Getting out of bed

  • Repositioning in bed

  • Putting on a shirt

Correct answer: Putting on shoes

After a posterior-lateral hip replacement, an individual is not allowed to bend forward past 90 degrees of hip flexion. It would be difficult to tie the laces of a lace-up shoe. An adaptive strategy would be to use slip-on shoes or shoes with elastic shoelaces. Using Velcro closure with a reacher would allow the individual to don/doff the shoe without breaking the 90-degree flex hip precaution. A long-handled shoehorn is also often useful for assisting with putting on shoes following a posterior hip replacement.

Getting out of bed and repositioning in bed may require some modifications, but not as many as are needed for putting shoes on. Putting on a shirt would not break hip precautions.

199.

Which is NOT an example of a superficial thermal physical agent modality?

  • Electrical stimulation

  • Ultrasound

  • Hot packs

  • Fluidotherapy

Correct answer: Electrical stimulation

E-stim does not have a heating component as it works on electrical impulses to communicate with cells.

Ultrasound can work superficially to heat tissue, as can hot packs and fluidotherapy.

200.

What areas should NOT be addressed when working with someone who is or has been abused?

  • Spirituality

  • Stress and safety

  • Uncomfortable feelings like fear, regret, and guilt

  • Support network

Correct answer: Spirituality

While this may be a part of a traditional occupational therapy evaluation, it is not something that is of immediate concern.

The other areas are of concern and will assist in getting the person to safety as quickly as possible.

×