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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

NREMT AEMT Exam Questions

Page 3 of 45

41.

When amniotic fluid and fetal cells enter the pregnant woman's pulmonary and circulatory system, this causes which of the following?

  • Amniotic fluid embolism

  • Ductus arteriosus

  • Eclampsia

  • Meconium 

Correct answer: Amniotic fluid embolism 

Amniotic fluid embolism is an extremely rare, life-threatening condition that occurs when amniotic fluid and fetal cells enter the pregnant woman's pulmonary and circulatory system through the placenta via the umbilical veins, causing an exaggerated allergic response from the woman's body.

The ductus arteriosus is a small artery that connects the left pulmonary artery to the aorta. Eclampsia is convulsions or seizures resulting from severe hypertension during pregnancy. Meconium is the newborn's first bowel movement.

42.

You are performing a primary triage at a mass casualty incident with dozens of people injured from an explosion. You find an adult male who is unresponsive with gasping respiration after opening his airway, cold pale skin, and blood oozing from a deep laceration to his neck. Which of the following is the most appropriate action? 

  • Tag him as expectant (black tag) and move on

  • Open his airway and apply dressing to the wound 

  • Tag him as immediate (red tag) and pack the wound 

  • Quickly drag him to the treatment area

Correct action: Tag him as expectant (black tag) and move on

At a mass casualty incident, the goal is to do the best to treat the most people possible with the resources available. Using several personnel or resources to treat one patient when dozens are inured is what triage systems aim to prevent. This patient will not survive his injuries. A deep laceration to the neck is most likely arterial and blood that is no longer spurting, but oozing, is a sign that he is in decompensated shock and survival is not likely. Using the START (Simple Triage And Rapid Treatment) triage guidelines, if an adult patient is not breathing after opening the airway, tag as expectant (black tag). 

43.

Which of the following is not considered an initial therapy for all patients suspected of hypothermia?

  • Maintain the patient in a semi-Fowler position.

  • Remove wet garments.

  • Avoid rough movements and excess activity.

  • Monitor cardiac rhythm.

Correct answer: Maintain the patient in a semi-Fowler position.

Initial therapy for all patients with suspected hypothermia includes the following:

  1. Remove wet garments.
  2. Protect against heat loss and wind chill.
  3. Maintain horizontal position.
  4. Avoid rough movement and excess activity.
  5. Monitor CBT.
  6. Monitor cardiac rhythm.

After initial therapy has begun, assess responsiveness for breathing and pulse. If pulse or breathing is absent, begin CPR. If pulse and breathing are present, monitor core body temperature. For mild hypothermia, provide passive rewarming; for moderate hypothermia, provide active external rewarming; for severe hypothermia, provide active internal rewarming using warmed IV or I/O fluids or warm, humidified oxygen. Rewarming efforts should continue until core body temperature rises above 95°F. 

Position the patient as needed for airway management or resuscitation or position of comfort. Positioning is not an initial therapy for hypothermia. 

44.

Which of the following has historically been the weak point for most major incidents?

  • Communications

  • Logistics

  • Public information

  • Freelancing

Correct answer: Communications

Communication has historically been a weak point at most major incidents. To minimize the effects of communication problems, it is recommended that common radio frequencies be integrated such that all agencies involved can communicate quickly and effortlessly via radio.

45.

Visceral chest injuries occurring from deceleration or from compression by a force delivered over a large area tend to be which of the following?

  • Closed

  • Open

  • Compound

  • Complex

Correct answer: Closed

Thoracic trauma injuries are generally categorized into two groups: closed and open. Closed chest injuries occur when the skin overlying the injury remains intact. These are typically due to blunt trauma, such as compression against a steering wheel in an MVC or from a falling object. Force is distributed over a large area, and injuries occur from deceleration, shearing forces, or compression.

Open chest injury is typically a result of a penetrating object, such as a knife, shrapnel, or a bullet.  Force is delivered to a small area and breaks through the skin.

46.

En-Route

While en route to the scene in this scenario, you are preparing mentally for your assessment. Which of the following should be of priority in your general impression upon arrival at the scene?

Select the 3 answer options which are correct.

  • Appearance

  • Circulation

  • Work of breathing

  • Cervical spine tenderness

  • Baseline vital signs

  • Pupil reactivity

The primary assessment begins with the paramedic's general impression of the patient. For a pediatric patient, you need to prioritize the three components of the pediatric assessment triangle:

  • Appearance
  • Work of breathing
  • Circulation

Upon arrival at this scene, be prepared to evaluate these three components as you approach the patient.

Pupil responses and cervical spine tenderness are not part of the general impression but will be included in the physical exam. Baseline vital signs will be obtained during the secondary assessment, not during your general impression.

47.

Signs and symptoms of moderate hypothermia include which of the following?

  • Loss of coordination

  • Foot stomping

  • Shivering

  • Rapid breathing

Correct answer: Loss of coordination

Signs and symptoms of hypothermia increase in severity as core temperature falls. It is important to assess the patient's core temperature. Extremities may be cold as a result of exposure, but the patient may be hemodynamically stable. 

Signs and symptoms of moderate hypothermia (92 to 89 o F) include loss of coordination, muscle stiffness, slowing of respiration and pulse, confusion, lethargy, and sleepiness. Shivering, rapid breathing, and foot stomping are signs of mild hypothermia (95 to 930 F).

The stress of a cold environment, a remote terrain, and a sense of impending doom may impair judgment, resulting in suicidal tendencies. It is important to protect patients from harming themselves while in your care; consider your own safety at all times.

48.

What are the borders of the thoracic cavity?

  • Lower neck and diaphragm

  • Clavicle and umbilicus

  • Sternum and diaphragm

  • First and 12th ribs

Correct answer: Lower neck and diaphragm

The thoracic cavity extends inferiorly from the lower end of the neck to the diaphragm, and posteriorly from the sternum (and costal cartilage) to the vertebrae.

49.

What legislation is intended to protect a medical patient's privacy? 

  • The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act 

  • The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act 

  • The Health Insurance Privacy and Accountability Act 

  • The Pandemic and All Hazards Preparedness Act 

Correct answer: The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act 

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) sets limits on sharing a patient’s identity and medical records and establishes strict penalties for violations.

The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) ensures access to emergency services regardless of ability to pay. Good Samaritan laws vary from region to region but in general provide legal protection to passersby who provide reasonable assistance to the injured or ill. The Pandemic and All Hazards Preparedness Act (PAHPA) provides for the organization of public health emergency preparedness and response activities, authorizing programs to prepare for and respond to public health emergencies.

50.

Which of the following is not an indication of a large vessel occlusion (LVO) stroke? 

  • Unequal pupils

  • Agnosia 

  • Aphasia 

  • Gaze deviation 

Correct answer:  Unequal pupils 

Signs of an ischemic stroke that affects a large vessel (LVO) include gaze deviation, aphasia, and agnosia. These are referred to as the cortical signs. Patients who are suspected of having an LVO need to be transported to a primary stroke center. Unequal pupils are a sign of an ischemic stroke, not an LVO. 

51.

Which of the following is not considered a step the AEMT should take to manage a patient with acute abdomen?

  • Administer oral fluid as the patient will tolerate 

  • Do not attempt to diagnose the cause of acute abdomen 

  • Establish an IV and administer fluid as indicated

  • Anticipate vomiting and place the patient in the most comfortable position 

Correct answer: Administer oral fluid as the patient will tolerate 

The signs and symptoms of acute abdomen may indicate a serious medical emergency. The AEMT should carry out the following steps as quickly as possible before transport:

  • Do not attempt to diagnose the cause of acute abdomen
  • Anticipate vomiting and place the patient in the most comfortable position
  • Anticipate hypovolemic shock
  • Establish an IV and administer fluid as indicated

Do not allow a patient with acute abdomen to eat or drink anything.

52.

Over time, the condition caused by the human immunodeficiency virus becomes which one of the following?

  • AIDS

  • Candida

  • Kaposi sarcoma

  • Cryptococcosis

Correct answer: AIDS

Acquired ImmunoDeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is defined in terms of either a CD4+ T cell count below 200 cells or the diagnosis of any of several specific HIV-related diseases in association with an HIV infection.

AIDS-defining opportunistic infections include candidiasis, coccidioidomycosis, cryptococcosis, chronic intestinal cryptosporidiosis, cytomegalovirus disease, encephalopathy, histoplasmosis, Kaposi sarcoma, several mycobacterium strains, and pneumocystis pneumonia caused by ​Pneumocystis jiroveci.

53.

The most common emergency in scuba diving is which of the following?

  • Air embolism

  • Decompression sickness

  • Drowning

  • Spinal injury

Correct answer: Air embolism

The most dangerous, and most common, emergency in scuba diving is an air embolism. When a diver holds their breath during rapid descent, air in the lungs expands. The increasing pressure (as the air expands) will force a rupture at the weakest point, the alveoli, and air will enter the thoracic cavity. This air may enter the pleural space and compress the lungs, enter the mediastinum causing a condition called pneumomediastinum, or enter into the bloodstream and create bubbles of air called air emboli.

54.

A 56-year-old female patient called 911 due to chest pain. Upon your arrival, she presents with altered mental status and bradycardia. Her vital signs are BP 78/56; HR 38; RR 22; SpO2 90% on room air. Her skin is pale, cool, and clammy. She is conscious but confused and lethargic. Which of the following are appropriate AEMT treatments for this patient? 

Select the four answer choices that are correct. 

  • Obtain a 12-lead ECG

  • Obtain IV access

  • Administer oxygen 

  • Request paramedic intercept/backup

  • Administer epinephrine IV

  • Administer sublingual nitroglycerin

This patient is in symptomatic bradycardia and is exhibiting signs of Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS). Management of this patient by the AEMT should include:

  • Requesting paramedic backup
  • Administering oxygen
  • Establish an IV
  • Obtain a 12 -lead ECG

Nitroglycerin and epinephrine are contra-indicated in this patient. A paramedic or higher is needed to provide advanced life support management of this patient.

55.

What is the second step of the START triage system?

  • Assess respiratory status of the nearest non-ambulatory patient.

  • Call out to patients at the incident site.

  • Go to the nearest patient and check radial pulses.

  • Go to the nearest non-ambulatory patient and assess cardiac function.

Correct answer: Assess respiratory status of the nearest non-ambulatory patient.

The START triage system uses a limited assessment of patients' ability to walk, respiratory status, hemodynamic status, and neurologic status to prioritize treatment.

Step one, upon arrival on the scene, is to call out to patients at the incident site and direct those able to walk to an easily identifiable landmark. These patients have now categorized themselves as "green," or walking wounded.

Step two assesses the respiratory status of the nearest non-ambulatory patient. If the patient is not breathing, open the airway using simple manual maneuvers; if breathing does not begin, triage the patient as expectant with a black tag.

Step three assesses hemodynamic status by checking bilateral radial pulses, and the final step assesses neurologic status and the ability to follow simple commands.  

An unresponsive patient or one that cannot follow simple commands is an immediate priority (red), and a patient who complies with a simple command is categorized as delayed (yellow).

56.

Turning the palms of the hands toward the ground is called which of the following?

  • Pronation

  • Adduction

  • Abduction

  • Supination

Correct answer: Pronation

Pronation of the forearm involves turning the palms toward the ground.

Abduction is the movement of a limb away from the midline of the body.

Adduction is the movement of a limb toward the midline of the body.

Supination of the forearm refers to turning the palms of the hands toward the sky.

57.

Asking if the patient understands why you are there is an evaluation of which of the following?

  • Mental status

  • Thought process

  • Perception

  • Judgment

Correct answer: Mental status

Asking the patient if they understand why you are there is an evaluation of their mental status.

Evaluating thought process, perception, and judgement may be a part of assessment of a behavioral or cognitive disorder. 

58.

Which of the following is a soft rubber device with a beveled tip used in a patient who has an intact gag reflex?

  • Nasopharyngeal airway

  • Oropharyngeal airway

  • Endotracheal tube

  • French-tip catheter

Correct answer: Nasopharyngeal airway

A nasopharyngeal airway is made from soft rubber with a beveled tip for use in patients who have an intact gag reflex and are unable to maintain an airway.

An oropharyngeal airway is a hard, plastic airway designed to prevent the tongue from obstructing the glottic opening.  

French, or whistle-tip, catheters are used in situations in which a rigid catheter cannot be used, such as a patient with a stoma or one whose teeth are clenched or if suctioning through the nose is necessary. An endotracheal tube is not used for suctioning but for maintaining an airway, although suctioning can be performed through an endotracheal tube.

59.

Patients with a gunshot or stab wound to the chest should not be:

  • Fully immobilized on a backboard

  • Endotracheally intubated

  • Provided fluid resuscitation

  • Transported to a trauma center

Correct answer: Fully immobilized on a backboard

Patients with thoracic gunshot or stab wounds should not be fully immobilized on a backboard. Rather, they should be rapidly moved and secured to a stretcher and transported in a semi-Fowler position. If appropriate, a cervical collar may be applied. These are time-critical injuries and require rapid transport to an appropriate trauma center.

60.

What is the compression to ventilation ratio in single rescuer CPR for an adult? 

  • 30:2

  • 15:2

  • 15:1

  • 30:1

Correct answer: 30:2

In adult patients, deliver 30 compressions to two ventilations for both single and two rescuer CPR. 

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