×

Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

NREMT AEMT Exam Questions

Page 8 of 45

141.

An explosion at a chemical plant with a large fire and dozens of casualties would require what type of command? 

  • Unified command

  • Single command

  • Operations command

  • Logistical command 

Correct answer: Unified command

Large, complex incidents such as this that require multi-jurisdiction or multiple agencies use unified command. Single command is used when one person is in command of an incident, even if more than one agency is involved. Operations and logistical are not types of command, but are branches of the Incident Command System (ICS).

142.

Short-duration, limited incidents that require the services of a single agency are usually managed by a(n):

  • Single command system

  • Unified command system

  • Incident commander

  • Command post

Correct answer: Single command system

A single command system is one in which one person is in charge even if multiple agencies respond. Generally, it is used during incidents in which one agency has the majority of responsibility for incident management. Ideally, it is used for short-duration, limited incidents.

A unified command system is typically employed in large-scale incidents, such as a hazmat spill, requiring a multi-agency or multi-jurisdictional response.

The incident commander is the person in charge of the overall incident who will assess the incident, establish strategic objectives and priorities, and develop a plan to manage the incident. The incident commander will work from a command post on or near the scene from which they can easily communicate with all emergency responders at a site.

143.

Your 89-year-old male patient is having a hemorrhagic stroke that has resulted in the need for ventilatory support. Prior to ventilatory support, you would expect the patient's Arterial Blood Gases (ABG's) to reflect which of the following? 

  • Low pH and elevated CO2

  • High pH and elevated CO2

  • Low pH and low CO2

  • High pH and low PaO2

Correct answer:  Low pH and elevated CO2

Patients with bleeding in the brain as a result from a stroke or trauma are most likely to require ventilatory support due to inadequate or hypoventilation. Respiratory acidosis results from hypoventilation, and is reflected by a low pH, elevated CO2 , and elevated H2CO3 (bicarbonate) levels in the Arterial Blood Gas (ABG). 

144.

Your legal duty to act is: 

  • an obligation to provide patient care in a manner consistent with established training and protocols.

  • a philosophy of right and wrong, of moral duty, and of ideal professional behavior.

  • an obligation to provide care to a patient that has become unable to make decisions.

  • a principle of law permitting health care providers to treat patients in an emergency situation in which they are unable to provide consent.

Correct answer: an obligation to provide patient care in a manner consistent with established training and protocols.

Duty to act is an obligation to provide patient care in a manner consistent with established training and protocols. A philosophy of right and wrong, of moral duty, and of ideal professional behavior is called ethics. An advance directive is written documentation that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient, should that patient become unable to make decisions. Emergency doctrine is a principle of law permitting health care providers to treat patients in an emergency situation in which they are unable to provide consent.

145.

What are rhythmic respirations with gradually increasing and decreasing rates and depth followed by intermittent periods of apnea?

  • Cheyne-Stokes respirations

  • Apneustic respirations

  • Biot respirations

  • Kussmaul respirations

Correct answer: Cheyne-Stokes respirations

Cheyne-Stokes respirations are rhythmic, gradually increasing in rate and depth, followed by a gradual decrease of respiration with intermittent periods of apnea.

An irregular pattern, rate, and depth of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea is termed Biot or ataxic respirations. Apneustic respirations are prolonged, gasping inhalations followed by extremely short, ineffective exhalation. Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid respirations. They are common in patients with diabetic ketoacidosis.

146.

You are dispatched to a scene where you find a patient with altered mental status. Vital signs are as follows: HR 118, RR 20, BP 120/60, T 99°F. The mean arterial pressure is:

  • 80

  • 60

  • 90

  • 100

Correct answer: 80

Approximate mean arterial pressure (MAP) is calculated by adding 1/3 of the pulse pressure (PP) to the diastolic blood pressure (DBP). Pulse pressure is the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure.

147.

Your patient complains of right lower quadrant pain; you should be considering involvement of which organ?

  • Appendix

  • Stomach

  • Spleen

  • Liver

Correct answer: Appendix

The location of acute abdominal tenderness can suggest the etiology, and, while not diagnostic, it provides important information. 

Right lower quadrant pain typically involves the ileocecal junction and appendix and may indicate appendicitis, cecal diverticulitis, Meckel's diverticulum, or mesenteric adenitis.

148.

Pulsus paradoxus is a sign of which of the following conditions?  

  • Cardiac tamponade

  • Acute coronary syndrome

  • Acute heart failure

  • Myocarditis 

Correct answer: Cardiac tamponade 

Pulsus paradoxus refers to an exaggerated fall in a patient's blood pressure during inspiration by greater than 10 mm Hg. It is caused by increased intrathoracic pressure and fluid restricting the ventricles from filling completely. It is a sign of cardiac tamponade, and can also be seen in pericarditis. Management is primarily supportive, with an emphasis on oxygenation and assisting reload with careful fluid administration. 

149.

Which of the following is a criterion to assess the need for further resuscitation in a newborn?

  • Skin color

  • Blood pressure

  • Capillary refill time

  • Physical activity

Correct answer: Skin color

Before the initiation of respiration after delivery, cyanosis is normal. Most newborns will begin crying, indicating an adequate respiratory effort, though effort may be slightly irregular in normal babies. Understanding the difference between central and peripheral cyanosis is critical; central cyanosis may indicate hypoxia, hypovolemia, shock, or congenital cardiovascular defects and require ALS intervention. Peripheral cyanosis is common in newborns through the first 24-48 hours.

General principles of newborn resuscitation and optimal care entail five essential steps: dry and warm the baby, clear the airway (bulb suction if needed), assess breathing, assess heart rate, and assess skin color.

When a newborn remains depressed after initial drying, warming, and clearing of the airway, resuscitation protocols should be initiated. Although most newborns will respond to tactile stimulation, a completely apneic newborn with no visible respiratory effort needs immediate treatment. Grunting is a sign of increased work, and gasping is a pre-arrest sign that indicates a need for assisted ventilation (40-60 breaths/minute).

150.

Behavioral rigidity, loud and erratic speech patterns, and agitation are indications of potential:

  • violence

  • depression

  • delusions

  • loosening of associations

Correct answer: violence

While only a small percentage of people with mental illness are dangerous to themselves or others, an AEMT is likely to be exposed to a higher proportion of violent situations. Warning signs of violence include a history of hostile behavior, rigidity, loud and erratic speech patterns, agitation, and depression.

Depression is a mental health disorder characterized by a persistent mood of sadness, despair, and discouragement. Delusions are fixed beliefs that are not shared by others of a person's culture or background, and cannot be changed by reasonable argument. They are sometimes called false beliefs. A situation in which the logical connection between one idea and the next becomes obscure, at least to the listener, is a loosening of associations.

151.

What are the signs of diphtheria?

  • Fever and sore throat with pharyngeal exudate

  • Coughing spells with a "whooping" sound and fever

  • Sudden-onset fatigue, cough, fever, and sore throat

  • Fever, a barking cough, and stridor

Correct answer: Fever and sore throat with pharyngeal exudate

Fever and sore throat with pharyngeal exudate indicate diphtheria. The signs/symptoms of croup are fever, a barking cough and stridor, mostly seen in pediatric patients. Coughing spells with a "whooping" sound and fever are signs/symptoms of pertussis. Sudden-onset fatigue, cough, fever, and sore throat are indications of influenza.

152.

Signs of inadequate breathing in adults include all the following except:

  • Vesicular breath sounds

  • A series of deep breaths followed by periods of apnea

  • Noisy auscultation of breath sounds

  • Unequal chest expansion

Correct answer: Vesicular breath sounds

Vesicular breath sounds are fine, faint, normal sounds noted in the lateral wall of the chest made by air moving in and out of the smaller bronchioles and alveoli.

A patient with inadequate breathing may appear to be working hard to breathe. Labored breathing requires effort and may involve use of accessory muscles of the neck, chest, and abdomen. Deep breaths followed by periods of apnea, noisy auscultation of breath sounds, or unequal chest expansion are all examples of inadequate breathing in adults. 

Other signs of inadequate breathing in adults include reduced flow of expired air at the nose and mouth; respiratory rate of less than 12 or more than 20 breaths per minute; shallow depth of breathing; pale, cyanotic, cool, mottled, or moist skin; retractions; and staccato speech patterns.

153.

A baby born before which of the following weeks' gestation is considered premature.

  • 36

  • 38

  • 40

  • 42

Correct answer: 36


Premature describes a newborn that delivers before 36 weeks' gestation or weighs fewer than 5 pounds at birth. A baby is considered term at 40 weeks.  A baby over 40 weeks' gestation is considered overdue.

154.

You are dispatched to the home of a three-year-old child with shortness of breath. While obtaining medical history, the mother informs you that they don't believe in vaccinations. Upon physical exam, you see that the child has a severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, and a high fever. Additionally, you notice that she is drooling, with worsening dyspnea. Which of the following actions would be incorrect?

  • Place an oral airway

  • Keep the child calm

  • Alert the receiving hospital about airway stability concerns

  • Administer humidified oxygen if available 

Correct answer: Place an oral airway

Placing an oral airway is contraindicated because this patient is conscious, and will have a gag reflex. This would only make the condition worse. Vaccination against the most common cause of epiglottitis, Haemophilus influenzae type B, has significantly reduced the incidence. However, in recent years, many parents have refused basic vaccinations. Therefore, it is possible that an increase in cases may be seen. Important clues to observe include stridor and sore throat with a normal-appearing pharynx. However, examination of the pharynx or larynx in these children may precipitate complete airway obstruction. Children typically should have their airway secured by tracheal intubation; adults can often be observed for signs of airway compromise.

155.

Which of the following is considered a section in the Incident Command System (ICS)? 

Select the four answer choices that are correct. 

  • Operations

  • Logistics

  • Finance

  • Planning 

  • Communications 

In the Incident Command System (ICS), sections are responsible for a major functional area. These are generally identified as finance, logistics, planning, or operations. Communications would be a branch of the operations section in the ICS. 

156.

What is the volume of the size M oxygen cylinder?

  • 3,000 L

  • 625 L

  • 5,300 L

  • 500 L

Correct answer: 3,000 L

Oxygen cylinders are available in several sizes, sizes D and M being most often used. D tanks are portable and can be carried from your unit to the patient, and M tanks remain in your unit as a main supply tank.

Oxygen Cylinder Volumes:

  • D: 350 L
  • Jumbo D: 500 L
  • E: 625 L
  • M (MM): 3,000 L
  • G: 5,300 L
  • H, A (M4), K: 6,900

Always check that the cylinders are properly labeled and that testing dates are current.

157.

Which of the following is the correct term used to describe any group of symptoms consistent with myocardial ischemia? 

  • Acute coronary syndrome

  • Chest pain 

  • Angina 

  • Myocardial infarction 

Correct answer: Acute coronary syndrome

The term used to describe any group of symptoms consistent with myocardial ischemia is called Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS). Angina is one of the conditions in ACS, and is a result of coronary artery spasm. Myocardial infarction is death of cardiac tissue resulting from obstruction of a coronary artery. It is one of the conditions in ACS. Chest pain is not always a result of myocardial ischemia. Other causes may include trauma, infection, or tumors. 

158.

You arrive at the scene of a motor crash on a two-lane highway. Fire-rescue units are on scene, and parked 100 feet behind the scene. Where should you park the ambulance?  

  • 100 feet past the scene on the same side of the road 

  • 100 feet before the scene on the same side of the road 

  • 100 feet past the scene on the opposite side of the road 

  • Right alongside the crash in the opposite lane of traffic

Correct answer: 100 feet past the scene on the same side of the road 

Parking the ambulance in a position that will allow traffic control, patient access, and safety is important. If other emergency vehicles are on scene, park the ambulance 100 feet past the scene on the same side of the road. If you are the first unit to arrive on scene, park the ambulance 100 feet behind the crash on the same side of the road in the fend off position. Parking on the opposite side of the road, or along the side of the scene, may not allow for adequate traffic control by law enforcement and is not recommended. 

159.

Which of the following is an extrinsic factor affecting pulmonary ventilation?

  • Trauma

  • Infection

  • Allergic reaction

  • Airway occlusion by the tongue

Correct answer: Trauma

There are many factors that affect pulmonary ventilation. Extrinsic factors include trauma and foreign body airway obstruction.

The most common cause of obstruction in an unresponsive patient is the tongue obstructing the airway, which is an intrinsic factor. Allergic reaction or infection are examples of intrinsic factors that affect pulmonary ventilation. 

160.

En-Route

Which of the following is accurate as you respond to the patient in this scenario?

  • You should be prepared to move the patient to a sheltered area as soon as possible

  • The patient most likely has severe, full-thickness burns

  • The patient will most likely not survive

  • You should be prepared to treat this patient the same as every other electrical injury patient

Correct answer: You should be prepared to move the patient to a sheltered area as soon as possible

It would be best if you were prepared to move this patient into a sheltered area as soon as possible. Lightning strikes produce tissue injuries that differ from other types of electrical injury because the pathway of tissue damage is often over rather than through the skin. Lightning duration is brief, so skin burns are usually less severe than those of high voltage current. Full-thickness burns are rare in lightning injuries. Although morbidity and mortality from lightning strikes are high, with immediate treatment, almost 90% of patients survive.

×