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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

NSCA-CPT Exam Questions

Page 5 of 50

81.

Contraction of the gluteus maximus, hamstrings, and rectus abdominus result in what postural change?

  • Posterior pelvic tilt

  • Anterior pelvic tilt

  • Rotation of the pelvis

Correct answer: Posterior pelvic tilt

The pelvic girdle can move in all three planes of motion, and direction of movement depends on which muscles contract. Contraction of the gluteus maximus, hamstrings, and rectus abdominus pulls the pelvis down in the back and up in the front, resulting in a posterior tilt.

Contraction of the hip flexors and lumbar extensors creates the opposite motion: The anterior side of the pelvis gets pulled down, and the posterior side of the pelvis gets pulled up, resulting in an anterior tilt.

A lateral tilt occurs due to contraction of the lateral lumbar muscles and the hip abductors and adductors. Rotation of the pelvis results from the contraction of the spinal rotators and the muscles of the hip.

82.

Which of the following is the most accurate description of the arm swing exercise?

  • Hold arms straight out to the side, then swing both arms to the left along the transverse plane, then immediately swing arms to the right in the transverse plane

  • Hold arms straight out to the side, then swing both arms to the left, while simultaneously rotating trunk and head in that direction, then reverse and perform on the right side

  • Keeping the elbows bent, raise the arms to 90 degrees and rotate both arms up and down in an alternating fashion

Correct answer: Hold arms straight out to the side, then swing both arms to the left along the transverse plane, then immediately swing arms to the right in the transverse plane

This is the correct description of the arm swing exercise. The arm swing is a great warm-up exercise for many different athletes and exercisers. Common mistakes include rotating the neck and trunk along with the arms and keeping the arms bent. The movement occurs in the transverse plane. 

83.

During a squat, you note that your client's knees are collapsing inward. Which of the following could correct this issue?

  • Activating the external rotators/abductors of the hip

  • Activating the internal rotators/adductors of the hip

  • Activating the flexors of the hip

  • Activating the knee flexors

Correct answer: Activating the external rotators/abductors of the hip

Valgus collapse, or the knees falling inward, usually occurs due to weakness in the hip external rotators/abductors and/or tightness in the hip internal rotators/adductors. Strengthening and activating the external rotators and abductors can help to correct this issue.

Activating the flexors of the hip or the knee flexors would not correct this issue.

84.

Which of the following is not considered an accommodating piece of resistance exercise equipment?

  • Dumbbells

  • Chains

  • Resistance bands

  • Water-filled weights

Correct answer: Dumbbells

Accommodating equipment includes implements that allow for different levels of resistance throughout the range of motion. Dumbbells, barbells, and other pieces of equipment provide a constant load throughout the range of motion and are thus not considered accommodating.

Chains, bands, and water-filled implements are some examples of accommodating equipment.

85.

Which of the following is not true regarding a closed grip?

  • A closed grip technically only refers to a pronated grip with the thumb wrapped around the bar.

  • A closed grip consists of the thumb being wrapped around the bar.

  • A closed grip is generally considered to be a more secure grip than an open grip.

  • A hook grip is a specific kind of closed grip.

Correct answer: A closed grip technically only refers to a pronated grip with the thumb wrapped around the bar.

A closed grip simply refers to the thumb being wrapped around the bar, as compared to an open or false grip, where the thumb is on the same side of the bar as the other fingers.

86.

Which of the following should be completed before performing the sit-and-reach test?

I. Warm up

II. Perform a maximum strength test

III. Measure leg length

IV. Remove shoes

  • I and IV only

  • I, III and IV only

  • I and II only

Correct answer: I and IV only

I and IV only is correct because the warm-up with some moderate stretching will aid in test performance, increase validity and reliability, and reduce the likelihood of injury during the test. Removing one's shoes will ensure an accurate measurement and reliability since the distance from the starting position to the hips could differ if shoes were worn. The sit-and-reach test measures hip and low back flexibility and is believed to be predictive of low back pain.

I, III and IV only is incorrect because leg length is not a measured variable during the sit-and-reach. I and II only is incorrect because during a battery of tests, it is suggested that the sit-and-reach occurs before any maximal strength tests.

87.

Which of the following is an incorrect description of the portion of the jump in which the athlete is squatting downward before jumping?

  • Concentric muscle action

  • Eccentric muscle action

  • Countermovement

  • Stretched agonist muscles

Correct answer: Concentric muscle action

Squatting down before jumping up is the eccentric motion, also known as the countermovement. During this part of the motion, the agonist's muscles are stretched, producing elastic energy, which can be released during the concentric motion, producing more overall force as the athlete jumps.

88.

A personal training client has osteoarthritis in her right knee. Which of the following movements would generally be recommended to include in her program without modification?

  • Leg curls

  • Leg extensions

  • Lunges

Correct answer: Leg curls

Osteoarthritis is a degenerative disease that involves the deterioration of cartilage in a joint. This can lead to varying levels of pain, which needs to be considered when considering participation in an exercise program.

Individuals with osteoarthritis have been shown to benefit from both resistance and aerobic training. However, program design should follow certain guidelines, and some modifications must be made to help prevent aggravation of the affected area(s).

Resistance training should be low-resistance and higher-repetition to avoid placing heavy loads on affected joints. Open kinetic chain movements are generally better options than closed kinetic chain movements, although an individual's pain response should dictate their capabilities.

Leg curls are a good choice for an individual with an arthritic knee, as it is an open chain movement and doesn't place much stress on the knee joint surfaces. Although leg extensions are also an open chain movement, they need to be modified to use only a partial range of motion. Loaded leg extensions in 30 to 45 degrees of leg flexion can place compressive forces on the patellofemoral (knee) joint.

Lunges are a closed chain movement and would generally be contraindicated for an individual with arthritis in her knee. Aerobic activities that have limited weight bearing are the best options for these individuals. Slow jogging is not a great option and can aggravate an individual's pain levels. Water exercise, biking, and the elliptical trainer would be much better exercise options.

89.

A personal trainer is conducting a static postural assessment. Which of the following would indicate a significant issue with proper postural alignment?

  • The back of the head is in line with the shoulder.

  • The ear is in line with the shoulder.

  • The shoulders are in line with the hips.

Correct answer: The back of the head is in line with the shoulder.

Proper postural alignment contributes to effectiveness and safety during exercise. Conducting a static postural assessment can help a personal trainer to identify significant flaws that might affect a client's ability to perform exercises correctly or safely.

Good posture includes aligning the ear, shoulder, and hip. This position helps to prevent kyphotic and lordotic positions, which can place increased stress on the spine. It also helps to improve the efficiency of movement, as it places the body in a biomechanically advantageous position to produce movement and force.

If the back of the head is in line with the shoulder, this indicates a forward head posture. This position has the potential to place increased stress on the body, including the neck, and can also lead to other postural deviations that may be associated with muscle imbalances and pain.

90.

Which of the following is the best description of stride length?

  • The amount of distance covered in one stride

  • The amount of distance covered in two strides

  • The amount of distance covered in one step

  • The amount of distance covered in a given time period

Correct answer: The amount of distance covered in one stride

A stride is the distance covered in two steps, from the right and left foot. Stride length, along with stride frequency, is one of the most important factors in increasing speed.

91.

Which of the following is true regarding the frequency of plyometric workouts?

  • Moderate-intensity plyometric training should be performed 2 times per week for optimal results.

  • Low-intensity plyometric training should be performed 1 time per week for clients to reach their goals.

  • High-intensity plyometric training can be performed every day, as long as the sessions are kept under 30 minutes in total.

  • A mix of high-intensity, moderate-intensity, and low-intensity plyometrics should be performed daily, depending on the client's goals.

Correct answer: Moderate-intensity plyometric training should be performed 2 times per week for optimal results.

While there isn't much research into the parameters of plyometric exercise, there is some evidence to show that moderate-intensity plyometrics performed twice weekly leads to optimal results.

Low-intensity plyometrics can be performed more often, and need not be limited to one day a week. High-intensity and mixed plyometric exercise should be performed sparingly, to minimize the chance of injury.

92.

When performing an assessment of a client's running posture, which of the following would indicate improper postural position?

  • The torso is leaning forward.

  • The torso is balanced over the hips.

  • The shoulders are relaxed.

Correct answer: The torso is leaning forward.

While a static postural assessment may provide some insight into potential muscular imbalances and postural changes, it's also important to assess a client's posture and ability to maintain good position during movement.

When an individual is running or walking, they should think about walking or running "tall," keeping the head upright and balancing the torso over the hips, not leaning forward or backward. The shoulders should be relaxed and not rounded forward. Maintaining a good posture position can help with efficiency of movement and can decrease the stress on the spine that can occur when good posture is not maintained.

93.

Which of the following types of flooring is the best for a resistance training room or area?

  • Poured rubber

  • Carpet

  • Interlocking rubber mats

Correct answer: Poured rubber

Poured rubber is correct because it is seamless, allowing for easier cleaning, and provides a lot of cushion and durability. The downside of a poured rubber floor is that it is very expensive. Whenever possible, a resistance training room or area should be on the ground floor.

Carpet is incorrect because this has little cushion or durability. Interlocking rubber mats is incorrect because this type of floor is very difficult to clean.

94.

Which of the following is not a function of cortisol as a response to increased aerobic metabolism?

  • Increased blood delivery

  • Stimulates the conversion of proteins for use in glycolysis

  • Promotes the use of fat as an energy source

Correct answer: Increased blood delivery 

Increased blood delivery is correct because the hormone epinephrine is responsible for this function in response to aerobic exercise. Epinephrine is released by the adrenal medulla, whereas cortisol is released from the adrenal cortex. Cortisol is the only hormone that plays a direct role in aerobic metabolism to be released from the endocrine gland.

Stimulates the conversion of proteins for use in glycolysis and promotes the use of fat as an energy source are incorrect because these are functions of cortisol in response to aerobic exercise.

95.

Which of the following is the correct hallway and circulation pathway width, according to the Americans with Disabilities Act?

  • 60 inches

  • 36 inches

  • 40 inches

Correct answer: 60 inches

60 inches is correct because this will allow an individual to walk past a wheelchair. In addition, there are rules concerning emergency exits, which must be clearly visible, provide essential signage for the visually impaired, be free from obstruction, and be well lit at all times. Thresholds must be flush or, if there is an elevation of more than 0.5 inches, must have a ramp or lift with a slope of one foot for every inch of elevation change.

36 inches is incorrect because this is the minimum width of any doorway. 40 inches is incorrect because an individual would not be able to walk past a wheelchair at this width.

96.

You are planning an exercise program for a client with excess body weight. How would you classify a client who has a BMI of 41 kg/m^2?

  • Severe obesity

  • Overweight

  • Obesity

  • Normal weight

Correct answer: Severe obesity

Severe obesity is defined as having a BMI greater than 40 kg/m^2.

Obesity is defined as having a BMI greater than 30 kg/m^2. Overweight refers to a BMI between 25-29.9 kg/m^2. Normal weight is a BMI less than 25 kg/m^2.

97.

You are working with a client who has bilateral lower extremity amputations at the knee. Which of the following pieces of exercise equipment would be most appropriate for this client in order to improve cardiovascular endurance?

  • Upper body ergometer

  • Rowing machine

  • Lat pulldown

  • Stationary recumbent bike

Correct answer: Upper body ergometer

There are a number of tools that can help those with lower extremity issues achieve cardiovascular exercise. One of the best tools, if available, is the upper body ergometer. This machine allows for varying levels of resistance for the upper body while increasing cardiovascular endurance.

98.

Which of the following is not a part of the client consultation interview?

  • Fitness assessment

  • Assessment of client-trainer compatibility

  • Discussion of goals

Correct answer: Fitness assessment

Fitness assessment is correct because this does not occur until the second appointment. A pre-participation health appraisal screening must occur first to ensure that it is safe for the client to participate in an assessment that involves exercise. The goal of the initial interview process is to obtain and share essential information that will relate to the program delivery process.

Assessment of client-trainer compatibility and discussion of goals are incorrect because these are parts of the client consultation interview.

99.

Which of the following is a typical cause of resistance exercise overtraining?

  • Progression rate is too high

  • Parasympathetic dominance

  • High intensity

Correct answer: Progression rate is too high

Progression rate is too high is correct because attempting to do too much too soon before the body can cope with the stress is a common cause of overtraining. Often, it is the volume that is progressed too quickly, which does not allow the body enough time to recover. This typically results in extreme soreness or injury.

Parasympathetic dominance is incorrect because this is often the root cause of aerobic exercise overtraining. High intensity is incorrect because this variable does not guarantee that it is inappropriate, or intolerable, especially if sufficient recovery is given.

100.

A client is unable to keep his back flat during the barbell bent-over row exercise, despite lifting only 50% of his 1RM weight. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the trainer?

  • Have the client perform low pulley seated rows instead

  • Nothing; the back should round slightly during this exercise

  • Lessen the weight further

  • Have the client trial a supinated grip

Correct answer: Have the client perform low pulley seated rows instead

A client's back may round during unsupported forward flexion for a variety of reasons. If the trainer can correct these issues, or cue the client to keep a better posture, this is ideal. However, some clients may simply need to switch to exercises that work the same muscles but don't cause excess strain on the spine.

A different grip likely wouldn't affect this issue. Lessening the weight further may help, but this might not be enough of a stimulus to cause improvement for most clients.

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