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NSCA CSCS Exam Questions
Page 10 of 50
181.
In response to mechanical loading, which of the following migrates to the bone surface and begins bone modeling?
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Osteoblasts
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Bone matrix
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Trabecular bone
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Cortical bone
Correct answer: Osteoblasts
In response to mechanical loading, osteoblasts migrate to the bone surface and begin the process of bone modeling.
Osteoblasts are specialized cells responsible for new bone formation. They synthesize and secrete the bone matrix, a collagen-rich substance that eventually mineralizes to become new bone tissue. When bones are subjected to mechanical stresses, such as those experienced during weight-bearing exercises, osteoblasts are activated and stimulated to build new bone, thereby increasing bone density and strength. This process is a crucial aspect of how bones adapt to the demands placed upon them, making them stronger and more resilient to future stresses.
Other terms related to bone structure but not directly involved in the process of bone modeling in response to mechanical loading include:
- Bone Matrix: This is the intercellular substance of bone tissue, consisting mainly of collagen fibers and ground substance, which becomes mineralized with calcium phosphate to form the hard, dense tissue known as bone. While the bone matrix is crucial for bone strength and structure and is produced by osteoblasts, it is not the entity that migrates to the bone surface to initiate modeling.
- Trabecular Bone: Also known as cancellous or spongy bone, trabecular bone is characterized by a porous, honeycomb structure and is found at the ends of long bones and inside the vertebrae. It is highly vascular and contains red bone marrow. While trabecular bone is responsive to mechanical loading and can be strengthened through the activity of osteoblasts, it does not migrate or initiate bone modeling itself.
- Cortical Bone: This is the dense, hard outer layer of bone that provides most of the structural support and protection for the body. Also known as compact bone, cortical bone makes up the shafts of long bones and the outer layers of other bones. Like trabecular bone, cortical bone is strengthened by the activity of osteoblasts in response to mechanical stress but is not the agent that migrates to initiate bone modeling.
Osteoblasts play a critical role in the bone remodeling process, ensuring that bones remain strong and capable of withstanding the physical demands placed upon them.
182.
What is anxiety as it relates to an athlete's training and performance?
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Emotional state characterized by fear and nervousness
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Emotional state characterized by an intense motivation
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Emotional state characterized by an imbalance between demand and response
Correct answer: Emotional state characterized by fear and nervousness
Anxiety is an emotional state characterized by fear, worry, apprehension, and nervousness. It is actually a subcategory of arousal. The difference between arousal and anxiety is that the latter requires a negative perception of events.
183.
Why is the two-foot ankle hop considered a low-intensity plyometric exercise?
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Little to no arm movement
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This is a hop, not a jump
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Limited repetition range
Correct answer: Little to no arm movement
This is considered a low-intensity/ low-level plyometric exercise that involves hopping on both legs with little to no arm movement.
The single-leg ankle hop is considered a medium-intensity exercise, and the double-leg tuck jump is considered medium intensity, as well.
184.
Your athlete is performing a hammer curl exercise. Which type of grip is she using during this exercise?
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Neutral grip
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Pronated grip
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Supinated grip
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Alternated grip
Correct answer: Neutral grip
During a hammer curl exercise, your athlete is using a neutral grip. In a neutral grip, the palms face toward each other with the thumbs pointing upward, similar to the position of holding a hammer, hence the name of the exercise. This grip targets the biceps brachii but with a greater emphasis on the brachialis and brachioradialis muscles, providing a variation from the traditional bicep curl, which typically uses a supinated grip.
Other grip types, which are not used in hammer curls, include:
- Pronated Grip: Also known as an overhand grip, where the palms face down and the dorsum (back) of the hand faces up. This grip is not used in hammer curls, as it does not align with the exercise's mechanics.
- Supinated Grip: This is known as an underhand grip, where the palms face up. While commonly used in standard bicep curls to target the biceps brachii, it is not the grip used in hammer curls.
- Alternated Grip: A mixed grip with one hand in a pronated position and the other in a supinated position. This grip is often used in exercises like deadlifts to prevent the bar from rolling but is not applicable to hammer curls, which typically involve both hands holding the weights in a neutral grip.
The neutral grip used in hammer curls offers a unique stimulus to the arm muscles, particularly targeting the muscle areas slightly differently than the more common supinated grip used in traditional bicep curls.
185.
Which of the following steps would maximize both strength gains and safety in the gym?
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Using a spotter for risky lifts and performing a variety of different types of exercise
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Working out only on machines
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Never performing max lifts
Correct answer: Using a spotter for risky lifts and performing a variety of different types of exercise
Although spotters can assist the athlete both in the area of motivation and with the completion of partner-assisted repetitions, their primary and most important responsibility is for the athlete’s safety. In fact, failure to competently execute this role can result in injury not only to the athlete but also to the spotter.
Exercises that require a spotter:
- Overhead exercises
- Exercises with the bar on the back or front of the shoulders
- Over-the-face exercises
Spotters aren't necessary for every exercise. In fact, they may be an impediment on some more basic lifts. However, when in doubt, it's always a good idea to have a spotter ready to assist.
Machine work can lead to improved strength, and virtually guarantees safety, but it is not the best way to maximize strength gains. Max lifts are a great way to improve strength and realize progress, but they often require a spotter.
186.
What is the safest maximum height recommended for performing depth jumps?
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42"
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48"
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24"
Correct answer: 42"
Depth jumps are very taxing and exert significant amounts of stress and load on the body upon landing. It is extremely important to ensure that athletes are adequately prepared to perform depth jumps as they are a very high-intensity plyometric exercise. Athletes must have mastered the proper landing position and have a significant amount of training before adding depth jumps to their program.
The recommended box height for depth jumps is between 16 and 42". When starting depth jumps for the first time, it is important to be cautious and conservative. Start with the lowest box height and slowly increase the box height over time, ensuring that the athlete can maintain proper form, especially on landing. It is also important to be sure not to overload the volume on the depth jump because they are much more taxing to the system than most other plyometric exercises.
A box height of 30 to 32" is a typical range used with athletes.
187.
What is the appropriate grip width for a power exercise that will be pulled from the floor and caught at the anterior deltoids and clavicle?
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Slightly wider than shoulder width
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Slightly narrower than shoulder width
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Much wider than shoulder width
Correct answer: Slightly wider than shoulder width
The power movement pulled from the floor and caught at the clavicle level is the power clean. Appropriate grip width is slightly wider than shoulder width, unlike the power snatch, which has a much wider grip.
The elbow to elbow measurement is one that can be used to determine grip width for the snatch.
188.
During testing, an athlete was found to rely heavily on their left leg when performing squats and other lower body exercises. Assuming the client doesn't have an injury that is preventing them from using their right lower extremity, which of the following strategies would most likely help to reduce this bilateral asymmetry?
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Incorporating more single-leg squats into his routine
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Avoiding bilateral lower extremity exercises entirely
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Adding more power moves, such as cleans, and avoiding pure strengthening exercises, such as squats, until the bilateral asymmetry is resolved
Correct answer: Incorporating more single-leg squats into his routine
Adding unilateral exercises to your program can help to reduce bilateral asymmetries. Single-leg squats are an example of a unilateral exercise for the lower body.
Avoiding bilateral exercises entirely could be detrimental for an athlete. Adding power moves and reducing strength-based moves would be unlikely to reduce the asymmetry.
189.
Which of the following statements about the design phase is false?
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Development of the master plan is one of the steps in the design phase
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The design phase includes creation of the facility blueprints
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The project’s architect is selected during the predesign phase
Correct answer: Development of the master plan is one of the steps in the design phase
The design phase occurs between the predesign phase and the construction phase when building a new facility. During the design phase, committee members are finalized, as are facility blueprints. Equipment specifications are included in the project design, and the facility is designed to provide for efficient traffic flow.
Development of the master plan is done during the predesign phase. The master plan serves as the general plan for all phases of the new facility. This includes the budget and construction plan, facility design, budget information, and an operational plan to act on once the facility is actually complete.
190.
How much glycogen is stored in skeletal muscle compared to the liver?
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There is more glycogen stored in skeletal muscle
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There is more glycogen stored in the liver
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The liver and skeletal muscle store similar amounts of glycogen
Correct answer: There is more glycogen stored in skeletal muscle
Glycogen is stored in the body in both skeletal muscle and the liver. Typically, muscle glycogen is used for moderate to higher intensity activities, including sprinting and heavier or higher intensity resistance training. Liver glycogen is utilized in lower intensity and longer duration activities.
Skeletal muscle stores about 300 to 400 grams of glycogen, while the liver stores about 70 to 100 grams.
Consumption of carbohydrates after glycogen-depleting exercise is important for the replenishment of glycogen stores.
191.
What is the term for the scenario where both the muscle force and the resistive force are applied on the same side of the fulcrum with the muscle force operating through a longer moment arm than that of the resistive force?
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Second-class lever
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Third-class lever
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First-class lever
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Torque
Correct answer: Second-class lever
The term for the scenario where both the muscle force and the resistive force are applied on the same side of the fulcrum with the muscle force operating through a longer moment arm than that of the resistive force is a second-class lever.
In a second-class lever system, the resistive force (load) is located between the fulcrum (pivot point) and the effort force (muscle force). This arrangement provides a mechanical advantage, as the effort arm is longer than the load arm, making it easier to move a large load with less force. An everyday example of a second-class lever is a wheelbarrow.
Other lever types include:
- First-class lever: In this type of lever, the fulcrum is positioned between the effort force and the resistive force. This setup can provide a mechanical advantage or disadvantage depending on the relative lengths of the moment arms. An example of a first-class lever is a seesaw.
- Third-class lever: This is a lever for which the muscle force and resistive force act on the same side of the fulcrum with the muscle force acting through a moment arm shorter than that through which the resistive force acts. An example of a third-class lever is the action of the biceps brachii during elbow flexion.
- Torque: While not a type of lever, torque is a related concept that refers to the turning force that causes rotation. In the context of levers, torque is the product of the force applied and the length of the moment arm from the fulcrum to the point of force application. Torque plays a crucial role in understanding how levers work and the mechanical advantages or disadvantages they may offer.
Second-class levers are characterized by their mechanical advantage, which allows for the efficient lifting or moving of heavy loads with relatively less effort, thanks to the longer effort arm compared to the load arm.
192.
During the pull-up, which of the following muscles is considered a stabilizer for the latissimus dorsi (agonist)?
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Erector spinae
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Posterior deltoids
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Teres major
Correct answer: Erector spinae
The erector spinae muscles do not assist the latissimus dorsi in the pull-up exercise; rather, they stabilize.
The rhomboids and teres major are synergists in the pull-up. All synergists of this movement assist in adducting the humerus or downwardly rotating the scapula, which the teres major and rhomboids do. The erector spinae only assist in stabilizing the back to keep the spinal column protected.
193.
A strength and conditioning coach is running an athlete through a variety of physical tests. Which of the following is the most valid reason why testing athletes is essential?
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To assess the individual's athletic talent at baseline and after strength and conditioning intervention
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To determine whether or not the athlete will be successful in competition
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To compare the athlete's skill to that of his or her peers
Correct answer: To assess the individual's athletic talent at baseline and after strength and conditioning intervention
A test, by definition, is a procedure for assessing ability in a particular endeavor. Assessing an athlete's ability is a great way to identify areas in which the athlete excels, as well as areas in which they might need improvement. This data also lends itself well to goal setting, using these baseline measurements to establish performance improvement criteria.
Testing is not performed to determine the likelihood of success in a competition. While peer-to-peer comparison can be helpful for statistical data, this is not the most valid reason for testing athletes.
194.
Which phase of training typically utilizes the highest resistance training volume?
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Preparatory period
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Competitive period
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Pre-season
Correct answer: Preparatory period
The preparatory period, or off-season, contains the fewest number of skill and tactical training sessions and includes no competitions, and generally includes a higher volume of resistance training.
This period is the starting point for an athlete's training program and is subdivided into two categories, starting with the general preparatory phase and then moving into the specific preparatory phase.
The purpose of the preparatory period is to establish a general physical base, to better enable the athlete to handle more intense training as intensities increase in later phases of training. The preparatory phase typically uses lower intensities and higher volumes. As the athlete moves closer to the competitive season, intensity increases and volume decreases.
195.
Proprioceptors that consist of several modified muscle fibers enclosed in a sheath of connective tissue are referred to as which of the following?
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Muscle spindles
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Extrafusal fibers
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Ventricle
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Atrium
Correct answer: Muscle spindles
Proprioceptors known as muscle spindles consist of several modified muscle fibers enclosed in a sheath of connective tissue. Muscle spindles are sensory receptors within the belly of a muscle that primarily detect changes in the length of the muscle. They convey information to the nervous system about muscle stretch, thereby playing a crucial role in the regulation of muscular control and coordination as well as in the stretch reflex mechanism, which helps to prevent muscle damage from overstretching.
Other terms mentioned, which are not related to proprioceptors, include:
- Extrafusal Fibers: These are the standard skeletal muscle fibers responsible for muscle contraction and generating force. While muscle spindles are involved in sensing muscle stretch (and are composed of intrafusal fibers), extrafusal fibers are the ones that contract and do the work when you move.
- Ventricle and Atrium: These terms refer to the chambers of the heart. The ventricles are the lower chambers that pump blood out of the heart, and the atria are the upper chambers that receive blood coming into the heart. These terms are unrelated to proprioception or muscle structure.
Muscle spindles are integral to proprioception, providing the nervous system with necessary information to maintain muscle tone and support protective reflexes, distinguishing them from the other structures mentioned that have different roles in the body.
196.
Which of the following types of aerobic training uses the highest intensity?
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Interval training
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Fartlek training
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Pace/tempo training
Correct answer: Interval training
There are five basic types of aerobic endurance training that can be used in different combinations to improve aerobic capacity and aerobic fitness and performance levels. In order of intensity:
- Long, slow distance (LSD) training: long distances at an intensity of about 70% VO2 max
- Fartlek: 20 to 60 minutes of varied intensities between that of the LSD training and the pace/tempo training
- Pace/tempo training: 20 to 30 minutes using an intensity right at the lactate threshold
- Interval training: involves 3- to 5-minute work intervals performed near the VO2 max
- High-intensity interval training: involves performing 30- to 90-second work intervals above the VO2 max
197.
Todd is performing a power snatch. Which phase of the exercise is he performing when he is in the position described below?
- The barbell is moving from his knees up toward his hips
- Todd has started to flex his knees to bring them forward and under the bar
- His back is slightly arched
- His torso is changing from an angled position to a more vertical position
- His arms are straight and his elbows point to the sides
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Transition
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First pull
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Second pull
Correct answer: Transition
There are four distinct movements that occur during the upward movement phase of the power snatch:
- First pull: Todd pushes the floor away to move the bar from the floor up to the knees.
- Transition: Todd bends his knees and brings the torso to a more vertical position while bringing the bar upward from the knees toward the hips.
- Second pull: Todd explodes through the hips, knees, and ankles to propel the bar overhead.
- Catch: Once the bar is overhead, Todd rotates his hands around the bar while pulling his body under the bar in order to catch the bar at arm's length overhead while in about a quarter squat position.
The power snatch is a power exercise that can be used to develop the rate of force development (the speed at which an individual can generate force).
198.
Which of the following is a common error seen during tire flipping when using the shoulders-against-the-tire technique?
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Placing the feet too close to the tire
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Placing the feet too far away from the tire
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The shoulders rise too quickly
Correct answer: Placing the feet too close to the tire
When the feet are too close to the tire, this often causes the back to round excessively while lifting the tire. The best way to set up in order to find the right distance, kneel down in front of the tire and place the chin and shoulders against the tire while gripping the underside of the tire with the palms up.
Once in this position, you can lift the knees off the ground. This should put the feet and the body in the correct position to start the tire flip. To initiate that movement, drive forward into the tire using the legs instead of attempting to lift the tire up.
199.
What can be done to increase the intensity of a depth jump to second box?
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Move the boxes farther apart
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Incorporate lateral jumps
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Incorporate resistance bands
Correct answer: Move the boxes farther apart
A depth jump to second box is a high-level plyometric exercise that uses boxes from 12 to 42 inches tall. To start, the boxes should be about 24 inches apart, but to increase the level of intensity, the distance between the boxes can increase, making the second jump more challenging.
200.
What are the primary actions of the gastrocnemius muscle?
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Plantarflexion and knee flexion
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Plantarflexion and knee extension
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Plantarflexion and dorsiflexion
Correct answer: Plantarflexion and knee flexion
The gastrocnemius is most known for plantar flexing the ankle. While it does assist in knee flexion, it is more directly involved in plantarflexion. For example, when walking on your toes, the primary muscle involved in getting you up onto your toes is the gastrocnemius. It is one of the muscles of the calf and has two heads: the medial and the lateral.
The quadriceps perform knee extension, various muscles contribute to plantarflexion and dorsiflexion. .