No products in the cart.
NSCA CSCS Exam Questions
Page 4 of 50
61.
A boxer is performing high-intensity intervals on the heavy bag in which she hits with as much force and as fast as she can for 10-20 seconds each round, and then takes a brief break. After three rounds, which of the following systems is least likely to provide energy for this type of exercise?
-
Oxidative system
-
Anaerobic glycolysis
-
Phosphagen system
Correct answer: Oxidative system
Because this is a high-intensity, short-duration exercise, it signals that an anaerobic system will be responsible for the production of ATP. The phosphagen system will provide the initial ATP, while anaerobic glycolysis, also referred to as fast glycolysis, will provide the remaining ATP.
Primary energy systems based on exercise intensity and duration are as follows:
- Maximum-intensity activities that last fewer than six seconds only use the ATP/CP (phosphagen system) for energy.
- Very high-intensity activities that last between 6 and 30 seconds use both the phosphagen system and anaerobic glycolysis (fast glycolysis).
- High-intensity activities between 30 seconds and 2 minutes use fast glycolysis.
- Moderate intensity activities between 2 and 3 minutes will use both fast glycolysis and the oxidative system.
- Low-intensity activities lasting longer than 3 minutes primarily use the oxidative system.
Oxidation of fats and proteins can occur in the oxidative system and can be used to create ATP for longer duration, lower intensity activity.
62.
During which of the following exercises is the teres major considered an antagonist?
-
Dumbbell shoulder press
-
Cable internal rotation
-
Bent-over dumbbell shoulder extension
Correct answer: Dumbbell shoulder press
The teres major performs adduction, extension, and internal rotation at the shoulder. The dumbbell shoulder press incorporates shoulder abduction and elbow extension. Therefore, the teres major is an antagonist during this exercise.
Cable internal rotation and the bent-over dumbbell shoulder extension would both involve the teres major as an agonist.
63.
During PNF stretching, the hold-relax technique begins with which of the following:
-
Passive pre-stretch
-
Active pre-stretch
-
Contraction of the agonist muscle
-
Contraction of the antagonist muscle
Correct answer: Passive pre-stretch
During Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation (PNF) stretching, the hold-relax technique begins with a passive pre-stretch. This initial phase involves stretching the target muscle (antagonist) to a point of mild discomfort by an external force, such as a partner or the individual themselves, without any active contribution from the muscle being stretched. This passive stretch is typically held for about 10 seconds, preparing the muscle for the subsequent phases of the hold-relax technique.
Other components related to the hold-relax technique include:
- Active Pre-Stretch: This would involve the individual actively stretching the muscle using their own muscular force, which is not the initial step in the hold-relax technique of PNF stretching. The hold-relax technique specifically starts with a passive stretch to ensure that the muscle is lengthened without active resistance.
- Contraction of the Agonist Muscle: In the context of the hold-relax technique, the focus is initially on the antagonist muscle (the one being stretched), not the agonist muscle. While PNF can involve utilizing the agonist muscle, particularly in techniques like hold-relax with agonist contraction, the initial phase of hold-relax does not involve active contraction of the agonist muscle.
- Contraction of the Antagonist Muscle: After the passive pre-stretch, the individual is instructed to isometrically contract the antagonist muscle (the one being stretched) against resistance without changing the muscle length, typically for six-10 seconds. This phase follows the passive pre-stretch and is aimed at increasing muscle relaxation through autogenic inhibition, allowing for a deeper stretch in the subsequent passive stretch phase.
The hold-relax technique of PNF stretching is characterized by its initial passive pre-stretch phase, which sets the foundation for the isometric contraction and further stretching phases, aiming to increase flexibility and range of motion in the targeted muscle.
64.
A set that involves a back squat immediately followed by cycled split squat jumps is an example of which of the following types of training?
-
Complex training
-
Strength-Power training
-
Supersets
Correct answer: Complex training
Complex training involves alternating an exercise that uses the stretch-shortening cycle (SSC), such as a plyometric movement, with a heavy resistance exercise such as a squat, in order to enhance their benefits.
Complex training is based on post-activation potentiation, an advanced method of enhancing subsequent performance.
Supersets involve two resistance training exercises that work opposing muscle groups.
65.
You have a client who is taking mixed-martial arts classes in addition to your strength training program. Which of the following energy systems is your client probably using the least?
-
Aerobic system
-
Glycolytic system
-
Phosphagen system
Correct answer: Aerobic system
Most sports require a varying combination of the different energy systems (phosphagen, glycolytic, and aerobic), and typically emphasize one system over the others. Power sports rely more on the phosphagen system, while endurance sports rely more on the aerobic system.
Mixed martial arts have a high power output as well as an endurance component, requiring a high metabolic demand from both the phosphagen and the glycolytic systems, as well as a moderate aerobic demand.
Cross-country skiing and rowing have high aerobic demands.
66.
Your client is warming up to perform pull-ups. Which of the following is the most appropriate stretch to recommend?
-
Pillar stretch
-
Crossbody stretch
-
Seated lateral stretch
Correct answer: Pillar stretch
In a pull-up, the prime mover is the latissimus dorsi. The pillar stretch, where the arms are brought straight up overhead with the hands interlocked, is a great stretch to target this muscle group.
Crossing the arm in front of the chest stretches the posterior deltoid, rhomboids, and middle trapezius. The seated lean back stretch targets the deltoids and pectoralis major.
67.
Which of the following processes do not require the presence of oxygen?
-
Anaerobic
-
Aerobic
-
Krebs cycle
-
Oxidative system
Correct answer: Anaerobic
Processes that do not require the presence of oxygen are referred to as anaerobic. Anaerobic processes occur in the absence of oxygen and are typically used by cells to generate energy (ATP) when oxygen levels are insufficient for aerobic metabolism. In the context of physical activity, anaerobic energy systems, such as the ATP-CP system and anaerobic glycolysis, provide energy for short, high-intensity efforts where oxygen availability cannot meet the immediate energy demands.
In contrast:
- Aerobic processes are those that rely on oxygen to produce energy. Aerobic metabolism, which includes the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation, is the primary source of ATP during prolonged, lower-intensity activities. It is more efficient than anaerobic metabolism in terms of the amount of ATP produced per molecule of glucose but requires a continuous supply of oxygen.
- Krebs cycle (also known as the citric acid cycle or TCA cycle) is a series of enzyme-catalyzed chemical reactions that form a key part of aerobic respiration. It takes place in the mitochondria of cells and requires oxygen indirectly; while oxygen is not used directly in the Krebs cycle, it is essential for the electron transport chain that operates in tandem with the cycle to produce ATP.
- Oxidative system refers to the aerobic energy system, which includes the Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain. This system uses oxygen to break down carbohydrates, fats, and proteins into carbon dioxide, water, and ATP. It is the body's most prolonged and sustained source of energy, especially important during endurance activities.
Anaerobic processes, therefore, are those that can occur in the absence of oxygen, enabling cells and muscles to generate energy in situations where oxygen supply is limited or the demand for energy exceeds the capacity of aerobic metabolism.
68.
Which of the following does not happen during the catch movement phase of the push press exercise?
-
Forcefully and quickly straighten the hips, knees, and ankles to reverse the movement
-
Hips and knees are fully extended
-
The bar is overhead from the drive
-
Press the barbell up the rest of the way
Correct answer: Forcefully and quickly straighten the hips, knees, and ankles to reverse the movement
During the catch movement phase of the push press exercise, it is not correct to forcefully and quickly straighten the hips, knees, and ankles to reverse the movement. This action actually describes part of the drive movement phase, where the athlete uses the lower body to initiate the upward drive of the barbell. The drive phase involves a powerful extension of the hips, knees, and ankles to generate momentum, helping to propel the barbell upward from the shoulders.
In the catch phase of the push press, the following actions occur:
- Hips and Knees are Fully Extended: After the initial drive, the athlete extends their hips and knees fully to support the body and stabilize the barbell in the overhead position.
- The Bar is Overhead From the Drive: The momentum generated from the Drive phase brings the bar overhead. The athlete's task during the Catch phase is to stabilize the bar in this position.
- Press the Barbell Up the Rest of the Way: If necessary, the athlete may perform a final press to fully extend the arms and lock out the elbows, ensuring the barbell is stabilized in a straight-arm position overhead.
The catch phase is characterized by stabilization and support of the barbell in the overhead position rather than the dynamic movement of extending the hips, knees, and ankles, which is a hallmark of the drive phase. Understanding the distinction between these phases is crucial for proper execution and maximizing the effectiveness of the push press exercise.
69.
Which of the following is a personality variable or disposition where the person assumes an environment or event will be negative?
-
Trait anxiety
-
State anxiety
-
Cognitive anxiety
Correct answer: Trait anxiety
When someone has a personality variable or disposition where he/she assumes an environment or event will be negative before it happens, this is known as trait anxiety. Those with trait anxiety tend to be more prone to thoughts of failure, catastrophe, and ego-oriented concerns. For athletes, this can result in distracted thinking and decreased performance.
70.
The filaments that are pulled across during a concentric contraction are attached to which structure of the sarcomere?
-
Z-line
-
A-band
-
H-zone
Correct answer: Z-line
The smallest contractile unit within a muscle, a sarcomere, is organized specifically to create efficient muscle contraction. Myosin connects to actin filaments via the myosin cross-bridges, and during a muscle contraction, they pull the actin at either end of the sarcomere toward the center of the sarcomere, overlapping the myosin.
The actin filaments are anchored to the Z-lines, which move closer to each other as the actin and myosin increasingly overlap.
Some of the organizational structures of a sarcomere are:
- A-band: the length of the myosin filaments
- I-band: area that contains only actin
- H-zone: area that contains only myosin
- Z-line: thin dark line running longitudinally through I-band where the actin is attached
71.
Which of the following tests does not have metabolic specificity for a gymnast?
-
Yo-yo intermittent
-
Vertical jump
-
Margaria-Kalamen
Correct answer: Yo-yo intermittent
When selecting athletic performance tests, the validity and reliability of those tests should be high. To ensure content validity, one important consideration is metabolic system specificity. Content validity ensures that the included tests are appropriate for the athlete being tested in that the tests measure constructs important to their sport activities, including the primary metabolic systems the athlete uses for performance.
A gymnast primarily uses the phosphagen and glycolytic systems, and therefore, included tests should reflect this requirement. The Margaria-Kalamen test and the vertical jump are both measures of maximal power, and therefore, have metabolic specificity for the gymnast.
The yo-yo intermittent test is a measure of aerobic capacity, which is not necessary for a gymnast. The oxidative (aerobic) system is targeted for longer activities (over 3 minutes). Gymnastics routines are shorter than 2 minutes in length.
72.
Which of the following is the best definition of a structural exercise?
-
A movement that places a load on the spine in a direct or indirect manner
-
A movement that requires multi-joint strength
-
A movement that involves the abdominal muscles
Correct answer: A movement that places a load on the spine in a direct or indirect manner
When a movement loads the spine directly or indirectly and challenges postural stabilization, this is known as a structural exercise.
While many structural exercises involve multiple joints, this is not always the case. The abdominal muscles are involved in many structural exercises, but this is not a complete definition of the term.
73.
Which of the following is not a recommended verbal cue to use with your client during the concentric portion of a lateral raise?
-
Hike your shoulder up toward your ears
-
Bring the weights up to shoulder height
-
Point your thumbs up toward the ceiling
Correct answer: Hike your shoulders up toward your ears
The lateral shoulder raise works the deltoids of the shoulders, almost exclusively toward the lateral head and anterior head. Hiking the shoulders activates the traps, which is not desirable during this exercise.
During the upward phase of the movement, your elbows should be slightly flexed, and the arms should eventually reach a point where they are parallel with the ground, or about shoulder height. Your thumbs should generally be pointed toward the ceiling, or forward during a lateral raise. In some specific rehab plans, you may perform an "empty can" exercise, where the thumbs are pointed down during a shoulder abduction movement. However, the empty can exercise is distinct from a traditional lateral raise and is inappropriate for many clients due to potential shoulder impingement issues.
74.
Which of the following is true regarding the conversion of macronutrient building blocks in the body?
-
Amino acids can be converted into both fatty acids and glucose
-
Glucose can be converted into amino acids
-
Fatty acids can be converted into amino acids
Correct answer: Amino acids can be converted into both fatty acids and glucose
While it is not ideal, amino acids can be converted into both fatty acids and glucose when needed. However, neither glucose nor fatty acids can be converted to amino acids, as these substances lack nitrogen.
75.
One of your athletes is at the height of their training as they have begun to work heavily on sports-specific movements. Between normal resistance training and sports-specific workouts, which of the following should you begin to use?
-
Tapering
-
Nonfunctional overreaching
-
Detraining
Correct answer: Tapering
When an athlete is engaged in a great amount of exercise and work, especially sports-specific exercises, they increase their chances of developing overstraining syndrome.
Overtraining syndrome (OTS) is a "prolonged maladaptation" of several biological, neurochemical, and hormonal regulation mechanisms. Many alternative terms have been suggested, including burnout, chronic overwork, staleness, unexplained underperformance syndrome, and extreme fatigue. True OTS can be extremely detrimental, lasting as long as six months or beyond, and can potentially ruin an athletic career.
At the basic level, OTS is a result of an imbalance between training recovery and often occurs with high-intensity, high-volume, and/or high-frequency training with little to no rest. It is important to challenge the body in order to elicit training adaptations, but rest and recovery are just as important to forward progress.
There are a few strategies strength and conditioning professionals can utilize to help prevent overtraining, including emphasizing and planning for ample rest and recovery.
Tapering involves a scheduled decrease in volume and/or intensity of training in order to provide additional recovery while maintaining peak performance. This is often used prior to competition to enhance performance.
Overreaching can be beneficial and describes the method of overloading the body to elicit training adaptations. Temporary decreases in performance are expected, but performance levels return after recovery. It is important to monitor athlete response to prevent nonfunctional overreaching, which describes a stagnation or decrease in performance that does not return to baseline after a regular period of recovery. This is an indication that an athlete is on the path to being overtrained.
Detraining is the loss of training adaptations due to cessation of training. This is not a helpful strategy, as athletes' performance will decline during detraining.
76.
Which of the following will have the greatest impact on muscular force?
-
Glycogen
-
Amino acids
-
Fatty acids
Correct answer: Glycogen
Glycogen stores are depleted during training and competition. When glycogen is depleted, performance declines. This includes muscular force and power output. Consuming carbohydrates before, during, and after training and competition replenishes glycogen stores, which helps to maintain an optimum level of performance.
All athletes should be aware of the carbohydrate recommendations based on their activity and intensity and duration of training.
77.
When is the best time to incorporate instability exercises into core training?
-
In trained athletes who are rehabilitating from an injury
-
With untrained athletes who are relatively weak
-
With trained athletes who are trying to optimize strength and power
-
With untrained athletes who are new to the exercise
Correct answer: In trained athletes who are rehabilitating from an injury
Incorporating instability exercises into core training is best applied with trained athletes who are rehabilitating from an injury.
Instability exercises, which often involve equipment like stability balls, balance boards, or wobble cushions, require the engagement of core muscles to maintain balance and posture. For athletes in rehabilitation, these exercises can help restore proprioception, balance, and core stability, which are crucial for a safe return to full athletic activity. The controlled environment of rehab, combined with the athlete's prior training experience, makes this an optimal time to focus on regaining and enhancing core stability through instability exercises.
Other scenarios include:
- With untrained athletes who are relatively weak: Untrained or weaker athletes may not have the foundational strength or neuromuscular control necessary to safely and effectively perform instability exercises. Starting with basic core stabilization and strength exercises on stable surfaces is generally recommended to build a base before introducing instability.
- With trained athletes who are trying to optimize strength and power: While instability exercises can be beneficial for core stabilization, they are not the most effective for maximizing strength and power output. Trained athletes looking to optimize these aspects should focus on traditional strength and power exercises that allow for the use of heavier loads and more explosive movements.
- With untrained athletes who are new to the exercise: Introducing instability exercises to untrained athletes who are new to exercise should be approached with caution. It's important to first establish core strength, coordination, and an understanding of proper form on stable surfaces before adding the complexity of instability to ensure safety and effectiveness.
For trained athletes in rehabilitation, incorporating instability exercises can be particularly beneficial for enhancing core stability and function, contributing to a comprehensive recovery and reducing the risk of future injuries.
78.
Which of the following has been proven to have a positive effect on performance, due to the relaxation of both agonist and antagonist muscles and improvements in the rate of force?
-
Warm-ups
-
Static stretching
-
Ballistic stretching
Correct answer: Warm-ups
In addition to the benefits already mentioned, a well-designed warm-up can improve muscle strength and power, lower viscous resistance in muscles, improve oxygen delivery, increase blood flow to muscles, and enhance metabolic reactions.
All warm-ups should consist of general and sport-specific activities. General warm-ups include around 5 minutes of aerobic activities such as jogging, skipping, etc. Specific warm-ups incorporate movements similar to those used in the sport one participates in.
79.
As a result of an aerobic training program, an athlete will notice various changes in physiological variables. Which of the following is most likely going to decrease?
-
Resting heart rate
-
Adenosine triphosphate
-
Creatine phosphate
Correct answer: Resting heart rate
As an individual increases their aerobic capacity with consistent training, the amount of ATP stored in the body increases, along with other energy substrates such as creatine phosphate (CP) and glycogen.
Blood pressure and resting heart rate would decrease.
80.
The purpose of feedback for an athlete does not provide context for which of the following?
-
Performance skills
-
Movement pattern
-
Associated goal
Correct answer: Performance skills
Feedback helps an athlete acquire and hone motor skills by providing information about the movement pattern and associated goal. This information is essential as it can be used to make appropriate changes in order to achieve the desired outcome.