NSCA CSCS Exam Questions

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141.

A marathon runner requires a high amount of which of the following for optimal performance?

  • Liver glycogen

  • Liver fat stores

  • Muscle ATP stores

Correct answer: Liver glycogen

Liver glycogen is more important in low-intensity, long-duration activities, such as marathon running. Glycogen's rate of depletion depends on the exercise intensity, so marathon running would cause a slow depletion rate. Having sufficient stores of liver glycogen is vital for performance.

142.

An athlete consumes a protein shake after a tough resistance training session. Which of the following is not a reason an athlete would consume post-exercise protein?

  • Maximize the anabolic window

  • Restore fluids lost during exercise

  • Reduce cortisol levels

Correct answer: Maximize the anabolic window

The amino acids in protein are building blocks for tissue repair and growth. Post-training or competition, muscle breakdown increases, and the consumption of protein helps increase protein synthesis, enabling tissue repair and growth to occur. Post-workout protein also helps to reduce cortisol levels. Every exerciser will vary in how much they sweat during a workout, but a recovery shake will help to recover some of this fluid loss either way.

The idea of an anabolic window is still heavily debated but, regardless, it is not one of the most important reasons to consume protein post-workout.

143.

What staff member is responsible for overseeing the entire program, the facility, its staff and equipment, and for administrative duties such as budget and proposal preparation and purchase of equipment?

  • A strength and conditioning director

  • A strength and conditioning facility supervisor

  • A strength and conditioning regional supervisor

Correct answer: A strength and conditioning director

The strength and conditioning director, also referred to as head strength and conditioning coach, is responsible for both practical and administrative duties. Though an important aspect of the job, the director is not only responsible for the development and implementation of athlete training programs, the director also oversees the strength and conditioning facility, including operations, equipment, budgeting, and schedules, in addition to ensuring that staff are qualified and properly trained.

144.

The posterior deltoid is not involved in which of the following exercises?

  • Overhead press

  • Bent-over row

  • External rotation

Correct answer: Overhead press

The anterior and middle (acromial) heads of the deltoids are both involved in the overhead press movement. 

The posterior deltoid is more involved in shoulder extension and transverse plane abduction, and targeted in movements such as a bent-over lateral raise and assists in rowing exercises such as the bent-over row.

145.

Which of the following is essential in generating the ideal performance state?

  • Training athletes to tap into their emotions

  • Running a physical diagnostic to scan for potential injury-prone areas

  • Analyzing each movement as it's happening during training/competition

Correct answer: Training athletes to tap into their emotions

By training athletes to positively and effectively tap into their emotions while maintaining a sense of control over them, they can generate and/or elevate their energy levels. As a result, this can directly contribute to overall performance and the ideal performance state.

146.

What is another term for low-speed strength?

  • Maximum strength

  • Load strength

  • Anaerobic strength

Correct answer: Maximum strength

Maximum muscular strength is often defined by the heaviest weight that an individual can lift, and is typically described as a 1RM (one-rep maximum). Because the loads used in such movements are so heavy, the actual movement speed is slower. This is why it is also referred to as low-speed strength.

147.

The glenohumeral (GH) joint is capable of producing motion in three different planes. Which of the following planes would the motion of GH hyperextension fall under?

  • Sagittal

  • Frontal

  • Transverse

Correct answer: Sagittal

Because the glenohumeral joint is a ball-and-socket joint, it has range of motion in all three planes.

Shoulder movements include flexion and extension in the sagittal plane, and adduction and abduction in the frontal plane. In the transverse plane, the shoulder moves in internal and external rotation, as well as horizontal adduction and horizontal abduction.

148.

Which of the following is not a recommendation for the starting position of a power clean?

  • The shoulders should be placed in a position that allows the torso to be upright

  • The feet should be flat and the torso should be neutral or have a slight arch

  • The shoulders are higher than the hips, and the hips are typically higher than the knees

Correct answer: The shoulders should be placed in a position that allows the torso to be upright

In the starting position for a power clean, the bar should be about the level of the mid-shin. When using bumper plates, this is the height of the bar when a loaded bar is sitting on the ground.

Some guidelines for the starting position:

  • The feet should be hip to shoulder width apart
  • The shoulders are higher than the hips, and the hips are typically higher than the knees
  • The shoulders should be either directly over or slightly forward from the bar
  • The bar should be about 1" away from the shins
  • The feet should be flat and the torso should be neutral or have a slight arch
  • The arms should be straight

The torso should not be upright in the starting position.

149.

Where should a spotter place their hands during a step-up?

  • Near the lifter's torso or hips

  • Right at the lower back

  • Near the lifter's armpits

Correct answer: Near the lifter's torso or hips

During the step-up, a spotter can assist the lifter in maintaining their balance throughout the movement. The spotter should stand behind and close to the lifter, moving forward and back as the athlete steps up and back down.

Placing the hands near the lifter's hips, torso, or waist enables the spotter to have the ability to assist quickly, and this position allows the spotter to have good control of the lifter.

150.

Which of the following exercises would be best for activating and isolating the pectoralis major?

  • Seated lever fly

  • Dumbbell overhead press

  • Barbell bench press

Correct answer: Seated lever fly

The seated lever fly or pec deck directly targets the pectoralis major. This exercise is similar to a chest fly and is performed on a machine.

The deltoids and triceps brachii work as assistance muscles in this exercise, working with the pectoralis major to create the movement.

The pecs are used during both the overhead press and the bench press. However, these are compound movements. Therefore, the pecs are not used in as much isolation as they are during the lever fly exercise.

151.

What does the glycemic load take into account?

  • Portion size

  • Type of carbohydrate

  • Time of day carbohydrate is consumed

Correct answer: Portion size

The glycemic load (GL) takes portion size (the quantity of carbohydrate in a food) into account to measure glycemic response. Just as with the Glycemic Index (GI), a higher rating indicates a greater blood glucose increase and subsequent insulin response.

Lower GL foods may help decrease systemic inflammation and the risk of certain diseases.

Glycemic load = Glycemic index of an individual food multiplied by the grams of carbohydrate per serving of food divided by 100.

152.

What outcome might a strength and conditioning professional anticipate if a strong athlete exclusively integrates unilateral training into their program?

  • A reduction in bilateral asymmetries will occur

  • A bilateral deficit will occur

  • A bilateral facilitation will occur 

  • Only unilateral strength will increase

Correct answer: A reduction in bilateral asymmetries will occur

If a strong athlete exclusively integrates unilateral training into their program, a strength and conditioning professional might anticipate that a reduction in bilateral asymmetries will occur. 

Unilateral training involves exercises that work one side of the body at a time, such as lunges, single-arm presses, or single-leg squats. This type of training can help address imbalances between the two sides of the body by allowing the weaker side to catch up, thereby reducing asymmetries. It ensures that both sides of the body work independently, preventing the dominant side from compensating for the weaker side, which can happen in bilateral exercises.

Other potential outcomes include:

  • A bilateral facilitation will occur: This refers to an increase in bilateral performance as a result of unilateral training. While unilateral training primarily targets one side of the body at a time, improvements in neuromuscular coordination, strength, and balance can contribute to enhanced performance in bilateral movements. However, this facilitation is not as direct as the reduction in asymmetries and might not be the most immediate outcome.
  • A bilateral deficit will occur: This is less likely with unilateral training. The bilateral deficit phenomenon refers to the observation that the combined force produced by both limbs in a bilateral lift is often less than the sum of the forces they can produce independently in unilateral lifts. Unilateral training tends to reduce this deficit by improving the neural drive and coordination of each limb individually.
  • Only unilateral strength will increase: While unilateral training will indeed increase strength on a single-limb basis, it doesn't mean that only unilateral strength will improve. The benefits of unilateral training, such as increased balance, coordination, and reduced asymmetries, can contribute to overall athletic performance, including in bilateral movements.

By focusing on unilateral training, the athlete can expect to see a more balanced development of strength, which can enhance overall performance and reduce the risk of injury associated with imbalances. However, for comprehensive athletic development, it's generally recommended to include both unilateral and bilateral training in a well-rounded program.

153.

In what manner should a strength and conditioning facility be organized in order to achieve the most functionality and the best appearance?

  • By equipment type

  • By areas of the body emphasized

  • By visibility

Correct answer: By equipment type

When designing the floor plan for a strength and conditioning facility, it is important to consider traffic flow patterns, how equipment will be used, and how much space is necessary surrounding each piece of equipment in order to maximize space and function. Placing equipment into groups can help create specific training areas within the facility. This might include specific areas such as:

  • Stretching area
  • Free weight area with DBs, benches, etc.
  • Agility and plyometric area
  • Cardio machines
  • Resistance machines

Visibility is also an important consideration, and therefore, equipment should be laid out in a way that does not prevent the strength and conditioning coach from safely monitoring athlete training sessions.

154.

Which of the following macronutrient levels would be optimal as a pre-competition meal for an endurance athlete?

  • Low fat, high carbs, and moderate protein

  • High fat, high carbs, and moderate protein

  • Low fat, low carbs, and moderate protein

Correct answer: Low fat, high carbs, and moderate protein

Before competition, endurance athletes should eat a meal that is low in fat, high in carbs, and moderate in protein. Athletes need to consume carbohydrates to help maintain blood glucose and ensure glycogen stores are not depleted. Fluids are also important pre-competition to prevent starting in a hypo-hydrated state.

Protein consumption can help with hunger; however, high fat intake is not recommended. Foods that are high in fiber have the potential to create gastrointestinal issues.

155.

During the straight-arms-behind-back stretch, which position should the athlete keep the elbows in?

  • Straight

  • Slightly bent

  • Bent at 45 degrees

  • Bent at 90 degrees

Correct answer: Straight

During the straight-arms-behind-back stretch, which is aimed at improving the flexibility of the shoulders and the chest, the athlete should keep their elbows straight. Maintaining straight elbows ensures that the stretch effectively targets the intended muscles, including the pectorals and shoulder girdle. This position allows for a more intense and focused stretch across the chest and shoulders, enhancing the stretch's effectiveness.

Other elbow positions mentioned do not align with the objectives of this stretch:

  • Slightly Bent: Keeping the elbows slightly bent may reduce the intensity of the stretch on the chest and shoulders, making it less effective for increasing flexibility in these areas.
  • Bent at 45 Degrees: Bending the elbows at a 45-degree angle would shift the focus of the stretch and could potentially reduce the emphasis on the shoulder girdle and pectoral muscles, which are the primary targets of the straight-arms-behind-back stretch.
  • Bent at 90 Degrees: Holding the elbows bent at 90 degrees would significantly alter the mechanics of the stretch, likely focusing the stretch on different muscle groups and diminishing the intended effect on the shoulders and chest.

Keeping the elbows straight during the straight-arms-behind-back stretch is crucial for maximizing the stretch's benefits and effectively improving flexibility in the shoulders and chest area.

156.

Which of the following is not one of the essential amino acids that must be consumed through diet or supplements?

  • Glutamine

  • Leucine

  • Methionine

  • Threonine

Correct answer: Glutamine

Glutamine is not one of the essential amino acids that must be consumed through diet or supplements. Essential amino acids are those that the human body cannot synthesize in sufficient amounts and must therefore be obtained from the diet. Glutamine, however, is considered a conditionally essential amino acid, meaning that under certain conditions, such as intense physical stress or illness, the body's demand for glutamine may exceed its ability to produce it, making dietary intake beneficial. Normally, the body can synthesize enough glutamine for its needs.

The following are essential amino acids, which must be obtained from dietary sources:

  • Leucine: Leucine is an essential Branched-Chain Amino Acid (BCAA) known for its role in protein synthesis and muscle repair. It is critical for muscle building and recovery, making it a common component of dietary supplements aimed at athletes and bodybuilders.
  • Methionine: Methionine is important for many cellular functions, including the synthesis of sulfur-containing molecules and the initiation of protein synthesis. It also plays a role in metabolism and detoxification.
  • Threonine: Threonine is involved in protein synthesis, fat metabolism, and immune function. It is also important for the formation of collagen and elastin, two proteins that are essential for maintaining the skin's and connective tissue's structure.

Understanding the difference between essential and conditionally essential amino acids is important for nutritional planning, especially for athletes and individuals with specific dietary needs or health conditions. While glutamine can be an important dietary component under certain circumstances, it is not classified as an essential amino acid that must be consistently obtained from the diet under normal conditions.

157.

You have a client who is short and stocky. Based only on the information provided, which of the following morphological descriptions would be most appropriate for describing this client's body type? 

  • Endomorph

  • Ectomorph

  • Mesomorph

Correct answer: Endomorph

Somatotyping is a method of categorizing the human physique. There are three fundamental somatotypes:

  • Ectomorphs are slender and bony.
  • Mesomorphs are muscular and have broader shoulders.
  • Endomorphs are rounder and have broader hips with stockier builds.

158.

An athlete has significantly decreased sodium levels. They might be experiencing which of the following?

  • Hyponatremia

  • Hypotension

  • Hypoglycemia 

Correct answer: Hyponatremia

Hyponatremia is also known as water intoxication and occurs when the sodium levels in the body are significantly depleted. In addition to losing body water during intense or prolonged exercise, you also lose sodium and other electrolytes through sweat. It is important to include sodium replenishment in addition to rehydration, particularly if an individual sweats profusely or for a long time. If sodium is not consumed and replenished during rehydration, this further decreases (dilutes) the sodium levels in the body and can result in a life-threatening situation.

Warning signs of this condition include headaches, vomiting, fatigue, muscle cramps, swollen hands and feet, restlessness, and disorientation, and can eventually lead to serious issues such as cerebral edema, seizures, and even death.

To help reduce the risk of hyponatremia, athletes should supplement with sports drinks or food, in addition to plain water during and after training and competition.

159.

Where should the waist measurement be taken when taking circumference measurements?

  • At the level of the umbilicus

  • At the narrowest point of circumference

  • At the level of the S1 vertebrae

Correct answer: At the level of the umbilicus

Most circumference measurements should be taken at the site of maximal circumference. However, the waist measurement is different. The waist measurement should be taken at the level of the umbilicus.

The waist measurement can be an indicator of health risks. A large waist measurement correlates with an elevated risk for chronic diseases such as diabetes, high cholesterol, and high blood pressure.

160.

When testing for maximum speed, what is the distance coaches should have their athletes sprint?

  • 100 meters

  • 75 yards

  • 50 yards

Correct answer: 100 meters

Speed tests measure how quickly an athlete can move a specified distance and are expressed in units of time. 

Speed tests can be various distances, usually ranging from 10 meters to 100 meters. Shorter distance speed tests measure acceleration, and longer distance speed tests (40 to 100 meters) are a better measure of maximum speed. Distances longer than 100 meters typically correspond to measures of anaerobic capacity rather than speed.