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NSCA TSAC-F Exam Questions
Page 10 of 35
181.
Which of the following is a correct cue to provide a tactical athlete who is performing the single-arm Arnold press from split stance?
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Extend the elbow while abducting and flexing the shoulder
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Place the opposite hand on the hip to assist with balance
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Keep the elbow tight, not allowing it to fully extend
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Keep the dumbbell above the chin at the bottom of each repetition
Correct answer: Extend the elbow while abducting and flexing the shoulder
When instructing a tactical athlete on how to perform the single-arm Arnold press from split stance correctly, it's essential to provide accurate cues that guide them through the movement effectively and safely. The correct cue for this exercise is to "extend the elbow while abducting and flexing the shoulder." This instruction helps the athlete understand that they need to straighten their arm upward while simultaneously moving it out to the side and raising it, which is characteristic of the Arnold press movement. This action involves rotating the shoulder to achieve a full range of motion, enhancing shoulder stability and strength through multiple planes.
Incorrect options provided are as follows:
- Place the opposite hand on the hip to assist with balance: While placing the opposite hand on the hip can aid in balance, it is not a primary focus or specific technique cue for performing the Arnold press correctly. The main focus should be on the arm movement and shoulder mechanics.
- Keep the elbow tight, not allowing it to fully extend: This advice contradicts the correct execution of the Arnold press. Full extension of the elbow is necessary to complete the press phase of the lift and to fully engage the muscles being targeted.
- Keep the dumbbell above the chin at the bottom of each repetition: While starting positions can vary, this cue does not specifically address the unique aspects of the Arnold press movement, such as the rotation of the shoulder and the full range of motion required for effectiveness.
The key to performing the single-arm Arnold press from split stance effectively is to ensure the athlete extends the elbow while simultaneously abducting and flexing the shoulder. This comprehensive cue guides the athlete through the correct movement pattern, ensuring safety and maximizing the exercise's benefits.
182.
A trainer will choose the type of grip based on the chosen weight, complexity of the exercise, and goals. What is the difference between a false grip and a closed grip?
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In a false grip, the thumb does not wrap around the bar, and it does in a closed grip
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In a false grip, the thumb is placed around the bar and under the first few fingers, and in a closed grip, the thumb is around the bar but sits on top of the fingers
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In a false grip, the thumb wraps around the bar, and in a closed grip, the thumb wraps over the tops of the fingers
Correct answer: In a false grip, the thumb does not wrap around the bar, and it does in a closed grip
In resistance training, there are a variety of different grips that can be used in the lifts. A traditional grip on the bar is also known as a closed grip, in which the thumb wraps around the bar and is placed on top of the fingers. In a false grip, the thumb does not actually wrap around the bar but, instead, is placed on the same side of the bar as the fingers. This type of grip does not allow the lifter to hold the bar securely.
The thumb is placed around the bar and under the fingers in the hook grip, which is typically used in Olympic lifting. When a lifter uses a closed grip with the palms facing up, this is a supinated grip. If the palms face down, this is a pronated grip, and when one hand is supinated and one hand is pronated, this is a mixed, or alternating, grip.
183.
Which of the following is a common mistake to watch out for when a tactical athlete is performing a shoulders-elevated glute bridge?
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Hyperextending the lower back at the top
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Knees should be flexed at 90 degrees
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The torso remains extended through the exercise
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The barbell should be placed at the inguinal fold
Correct answer: Hyperextending the lower back at the top
When instructing a tactical athlete on performing a shoulders-elevated glute bridge, especially when adding resistance like a barbell, ensuring correct form is paramount to both effectiveness and safety. The primary goal of this exercise is to strengthen the glutes, hamstrings, and core while minimizing undue stress on the lower back. Among the common mistakes, hyperextending the lower back at the top of the movement is particularly concerning as it can lead to back pain or injury by placing excessive strain on the lumbar spine.
To perform the exercise correctly and avoid common pitfalls, consider the following guidance:
- Hyperextending the lower back at the top: This is a mistake that involves arching the back excessively when lifting the hips, which can lead to lower back discomfort or injury. The focus should be on maintaining a neutral spine and engaging the glutes and hamstrings to lift the hips rather than pushing through the lower back.
- Knees should be flexed at 90 degrees: Maintaining the knees at a 90-degree angle throughout the exercise ensures proper alignment and helps to engage the target muscles effectively. This is not a mistake but a part of the correct technique, emphasizing the importance of setup before initiating the lift.
- The torso remains extended through the exercise: Keeping the torso extended and aligned with the thighs at the top of the movement ensures that the body forms a straight line from the shoulders to the knees. This alignment is crucial for engaging the core and glutes properly and avoiding undue strain on the lower back.
- The barbell should be placed at the inguinal fold: Proper placement of the barbell—right above the pelvis in the inguinal fold—is essential for distributing the weight evenly and preventing discomfort or injury. This correct positioning helps in focusing the exercise's intensity on the glutes and hamstrings without compromising safety.
By avoiding hyperextension of the lower back and adhering to the correct technique—knees flexed at 90 degrees, maintaining an extended torso, and correctly placing the barbell—the athlete can maximize the benefits of the shoulders-elevated glute bridge while minimizing the risk of injury. This approach ensures the exercise targets the intended muscle groups effectively and safely.
184.
As a trainer, it is important to recognize the symptoms of certain conditions in order to refer them to the appropriate healthcare professional. Which of the following is not part of the group of risk factors known as metabolic syndrome?
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Low resting heart rate
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High triglycerides
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Obesity
Correct answer: Low resting heart rate
There are many risk factors that can increase an individual's overall risk of developing cardiovascular disease, as well as the risk of death related to coronary heart disease. On their own, each of these can elevate an individual's risk for developing this disease, but when multiple risk factors are present, the risk is even greater. This grouping of risk factors is known as metabolic syndrome.
It's crucial that individuals diagnosed with metabolic syndrome make necessary changes to their lifestyle—including reducing stress, improving nutrition, increasing regular activity levels, and improving cardiovascular health. High stress, poor nutrition, a sedentary lifestyle, tobacco and alcohol consumption all contribute to declining health and yet, are all common in tactical populations.
185.
What is referred to as the difference between one's maximal heart rate and their resting heart rate?
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Heart rate reserve
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Submaximal heart rate
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Functional capacity
Correct answer: Heart rate reserve
Heart rate training for athletes and military personnel is one of the most frequent methods of training. The reason is the close relationship between heart rate and oxygen consumption.
Heart rate reserve (HRR) is the difference between one's maximal heart rate and their resting heart rate. The HRR is used in the Karvonen Method equation to determine target heart rates based on intended training intensities.
Process:
- Estimate age-predicted max heart rate (APMHR): 220 - age
- Determine HRR: APMHR - resting heart rate
- Determine target heart rate (THR): HRR x exercise intensity + RHR
This method can be used to estimate the target heart rate range is appropriate for the assigned exercise intensity.
186.
When an athletic trainer supplies force on the leg of an athlete to stretch their hamstrings, what type of stretch is being performed?
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Passive stretch
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Active stretch
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Dynamic stretch
Correct answer: Passive stretch
When an athletic trainer is stretching an athlete's hamstrings by pushing on their leg, this is a type of static stretch, but is also a passive stretch.
A passive stretch is when a partner or stretching machine provides external force to cause or enhance a stretch and no muscular effort is required from the individual being stretched.
An active stretch is when only the person stretching supplies the force for the stretch.
187.
When the blood glucose level is too low, the body releases what hormone to increase blood glucose levels?
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Glucagon
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Insulin
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Oxytocin
Correct answer: Glucagon
The pancreas is an endocrine gland that releases two different hormones that, together, regulate blood glucose levels. Those hormones are insulin and glucagon.
Glucagon acts to increase blood glucose levels, while insulin does just the opposite: it promotes the entry of blood glucose into cells.
188.
Which of the following is not one of the recommended ways to prevent NFOR and OTS within the tactical athlete population?
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Use occupational fitness programs exclusively
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Look for early warning signs
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Monitor the tactical athlete with comprehensive testing
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Educate the tactical athlete
Correct answer: Use occupational fitness programs exclusively
To effectively prevent NonFunctional OverReaching (NFOR) and OverTraining Syndrome (OTS) among tactical athletes, it's critical to avoid relying solely on occupational fitness programs. Such programs, while relevant, may not address the individual needs and recovery requirements of each athlete. Integrating individualized, periodized training programs that include proper recovery methods is essential for sustaining long-term athletic performance and health.
The following are recommended ways to prevent NFOR and OTS within the tactical athlete population:
- Look for early warning signs: Identifying early signs of overreaching or overtraining, such as increased fatigue, decreased performance, mood changes, and altered sleep patterns, is crucial for taking timely preventive actions.
- Monitor the tactical athlete with comprehensive testing: Regularly assessing the athlete's physical and psychological state helps in making informed adjustments to training intensity, volume, and recovery strategies.
- Educate the tactical athlete: Informing athletes about the risks of overtraining, the importance of recovery, and symptoms of NFOR and OTS empowers them to communicate potential issues early and adhere to recommended practices for optimal performance and health.
It is important to take a holistic approach to training, emphasizing the need for tailored programs that incorporate adequate recovery alongside physical conditioning. This strategy not only mitigates the risk of overtraining but also enhances overall well-being and operational readiness.
189.
What is the adequate daily intake (AI) of fiber for adults under 50 years of age, according to the Institute of Medicine?
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38 g for males, 25 g for females
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40 g for both males and females
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21 g for males, 18 g for females
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25 g for both males and females
Correct answer: 38 g for males, 25 g for females
Fiber intake is important for digestion and improving the probiotic (healthy) bacteria in the large intestine. In addition, it can help contribute to fecal bulk. Most individuals do not consume adequate amounts of fiber. The Institute of Medicine recommends daily consumption of 38 g of fiber for adult males under 50 and 25 g for adult females under 50. For adults 50 and older, the recommendation is 30 g for males and 21 g for females.
Good sources of fiber include whole-grain foods such as bread, rice and pasta, certain fruits, vegetables, and starchy legumes.
190.
What is the minimum recommended space between the ends of racks to provide room for spotters?
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3 feet
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2 feet
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4 feet
Correct answer: 3 feet
Equipment placement should be precise and well thought out when considering design of a strength and conditioning program. The tallest machines, such as squat racks and power racks, should be against a wall. Barbells and dumbbells should be placed a minimum of 36 inches between bar ends for ease of movement for spotters, and equipment should be at least 6 inches from mirrors.
191.
Which of the following is not a mechanism that contributes to varying degrees of peripheral blood concentrations of hormones?
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The blood sample retrieval site
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Tissue clearance rate
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Fluid volume shifts
Correct answer: The blood sample retrieval site
There are a number of mechanisms that affect the peripheral blood concentrations of hormones:
- Fluid volume shifts: Body fluid moves to intercellular areas and causes more concentrated blood.
- Tissue clearance rates: The time it takes a hormone to circulate through the tissue. Hormones travel at different rates.
- Hormonal degradation: The hormone itself can break down.
- Venous pooling of blood: Blood traveling back to the heart is slowed by venous pooling.
- Interactions with binding proteins in the blood: Hormones bind with specialized proteins in the blood that make it easier for the blood to transport the hormone.
192.
James is an athlete recovering from a hamstring strain. He is currently working with a physical therapist and seeing gains in strength. In what phase of tissue healing might you see increased tissue strength?
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Remodeling
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Repair
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Inflammation
Correct answer: Remodeling
Tissue healing has three phases:
- Inflammation (acute): pain, swelling, and redness
- Repair (subacute): collagen fiber production, decreased number of inflammatory cells
- Remodeling (chronic): proper collagen fiber alignment, increased tissue strength
193.
Which of the following athletes should eat a precompetition meal 30 minutes before their competition?
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Athletes who have a tendency to feel shaky or weak
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Athletes who exercise in the heat
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Athletes who participate in a high-intensity sport
Correct answer: Athletes who have a tendency to feel shaky or weak
There are guidelines for whether athletes should eat 30 minutes before a competition or 3-4 hours before a competition.
Athletes who have a tendency to feel shaky or weak should eat 30 minutes before competition, and athletes who exercise in the heat and those who participate in high-intensity sports should eat 3-4 hours before competition.
194.
Which of the following hormones is considered a catabolic hormone?
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Cortisol
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Testosterone
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Insulin-like growth factor
Correct answer: Cortisol
Hormones are either anabolic or catabolic in nature. Anabolic hormones are those that promote tissue building while anabolic hormones promote degrading of cells.
Some examples of anabolic hormones are testosterone, insulin-like growth factor, insulin, and growth hormone. Examples of catabolic hormones are cortisol and progesterone.
195.
What is the first consideration for a TSAC facilitator when creating a training plan for military personnel?
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Unit mission
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Injury history
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Training goals
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Aerobic fitness
Correct answer: Unit mission
When designing a training program for military personnel, a Tactical Strength And Conditioning (TSAC) facilitator must prioritize understanding the specific unit's mission above all else.
This foundational step ensures that the program is directly aligned with the operational demands and objectives of the military personnel, thereby enhancing their performance and readiness for their unique roles.
While factors such as injury history, individual training goals, and aerobic fitness levels are also crucial components of a comprehensive training strategy, they are secondary to the primary focus on the unit mission.
Tailoring the training to meet the mission's demands ensures that the program supports the specific physical and tactical needs, preparing military personnel for the challenges they will face in the field.
This approach emphasizes the importance of a mission-centric training philosophy in the development of effective and relevant training programs for military units.
196.
Which of the following is the pressure in the arteries following contraction of the heart?
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Systolic blood pressure
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Diastolic blood pressure
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Mean arterial pressure
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Total peripheral resistance
Correct answer: Systolic blood pressure
Systolic blood pressure represents the pressure within the arteries immediately after the heart contracts. It reflects the highest level of blood pressure in the arteries and is the first number recorded in blood pressure readings (for example, in a reading of 120/80 mmHg, 120 is the systolic pressure). This measurement is crucial for assessing cardiovascular health, as elevated systolic pressure can indicate a higher risk of heart disease and stroke.
The other terms provided relate to different aspects of blood pressure and cardiovascular function:
- Diastolic Blood Pressure: This refers to the arterial pressure measured during the period when the heart is in a state of relaxation between contractions. It represents the lowest level of blood pressure and is the second number in blood pressure readings (in the example of 120/80 mmHg, 80 is the diastolic pressure). Diastolic pressure is important for understanding the overall health of the arteries and how effectively the heart relaxes.
- Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP): This is an average blood pressure within the arteries throughout one cardiac cycle, weighted toward diastolic pressure because the heart spends more time in diastole. MAP is considered a better indicator of perfusion to vital organs than systolic pressure alone and can be approximated using the following formula: MAP ≈ diastolic BP + 1/3(systolic BP - diastolic BP).
- Total Peripheral Resistance (TPR): Total Peripheral Resistance (TPR) represents the opposition to blood flow through the body's entire network of blood vessels, except for those in the lungs. Factors such as the width of blood vessels, the thickness of the blood, and the total distance the blood travels through the circulatory system all play a role in determining TPR. In conjunction with the heart's output, TPR plays a crucial role in setting the level of blood pressure within the arteries.
In summary, systolic blood pressure is a key measure of the force exerted on artery walls immediately after the heart contracts, providing essential information about cardiovascular health and the risk of hypertension-related conditions.
197.
Which statement is true of a strength and conditioning facility's layout?
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Walkways within the facility should be a minimum of 36 inches wide
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Walkways within the facility should be a minimum of 45 inches wide
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There should be a minimum perimeter of 24 inches between resistance training machines
Correct answer: Walkways within the facility should be a minimum of 36 inches wide
Layout considerations for a strength and conditioning facility are extremely important to increase both safety and accessibility.
- The facility must be free from obstruction of entrances and exits, even walkways
- Walkways within the facility should be a minimum of 3 feet wide (36 inches)
- All thresholds should be flush
- There should be a minimum perimeter of 36 inches between resistance training machines and aerobic equipment as well as between the ends of the barbells in a free weight training area
- There should be a 4 foot perimeter around Olympic platforms
198.
Which of the following types of drills bring together ankling, high-knee drills, butt kicks, and arm swing drills?
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A-drills
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B-drills
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Acceleration drills
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Fundamental agility skills
Correct answer: A-drills
A-drills are designed to enhance coordination, speed, and agility by focusing on precise movements that mimic high-speed running mechanics. These drills incorporate ankling, high-knee exercises, butt kicks, and arm swings, all aimed at improving an athlete's form, efficiency, and power during sprinting.
The other answer options are explained as follows:
- B-drills: While these drills also focus on running mechanics, they usually emphasize different aspects of movement, such as the back kick or the phase after the leg leaves the ground rather than the comprehensive approach of A-drills.
- Acceleration drills: These are specifically aimed at improving an athlete's ability to quickly increase speed from a stationary position or a slow jog. While acceleration drills might include high-knee exercises or arm swings, they are more focused on building explosive power than the range of techniques covered in A-drills.
- Fundamental agility skills: This category is broader and can include various exercises aimed at enhancing an athlete's quickness, coordination, and ability to change directions swiftly. While fundamental agility skills are crucial for athletic performance, they don't specifically combine the ankling, high-knee drills, butt kicks, and arm swing drills in the structured manner that A-drills do.
199.
What is another name for spongy bone tissue found at the ends of long bones?
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Cancellous
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Lamellae
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Cortical
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Epiphyses
Correct answer: Cancellous
The bone tissue found in the shaft of long bones is cortical bone, which is very compact. This section of these bones is known as the diaphysis. The ends of the bones, known as the epiphyses, are composed of bone that has a spongy appearance and is known as spongy, or cancellous, bone.
The lamellae are rings of bone tissue that, along with the osteocytes, form the osteon of the compact (cortical) bone and surround the Haversian canal. This is where the blood vessels are found that bring necessary nutrients and minerals to the bone tissue.
200.
Which of the following is considered an intrinsic risk factor?
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Low fitness level
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Ambient temperature
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Job task requirements
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Equipment
Correct answer: Low fitness level
Risk factors can be categorized as extrinsic or intrinsic. Extrinsic risk factors are those that occur outside the body. Things like environment, temperature, terrain, work conditions—including job task requirements, and equipment are all extrinsic risk factors. On the opposite side, intrinsic factors are those that are tied to the individual. BMI and a low fitness level are examples of intrinsic risk factors.