NSCA TSAC-F Exam Questions

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41.

A trainer is programming a hamstring-strengthening workout for a tactical athlete. Which of the following exercises would be the best selection to target hamstring, not quadriceps, strength?

  • Romanian deadlift

  • Front squat

  • Dumbbell step-up

Correct answer: Romanian deadlift

The Romanian deadlift exercise targets the hamstrings, glutes, and lower back, but not the quadriceps. This exercise requires the lifter to hinge at the waist with very little change in the knee joint. As the athlete hinges downward and upward to lower and lift the weight, the hamstrings, glutes, and lower back are responsible for executing this movement.

42.

You are scheduling a test to determine the current power level for your tactical athlete. Which of the following types of tests would be best to utilize during testing?

  • Vertical jump test

  • One-repetition maximum

  • T-test

  • Sprint

Correct answer: Vertical jump test

For assessing the power levels of a tactical athlete, the vertical jump test is an optimal choice. This test directly measures lower body explosive power, crucial for many tasks and movements encountered in tactical settings. It's straightforward, requiring minimal equipment and time, and yields immediate, quantifiable results that reflect an athlete's ability to exert force rapidly.

The one-Repetition Maximum (1RM) test, while invaluable for measuring maximal strength, doesn't specifically assess power, which involves both strength and speed. 

Similarly, the T-test and sprint tests are more suited to evaluating agility and speed rather than pure power. 

The vertical jump test stands out by specifically targeting and measuring the power output of the lower body, making it an ideal choice for evaluating a tactical athlete's explosive capabilities.

43.

Which of these ergogenic aids is considered to have low risk and is associated with demonstrated high benefits for the tactical athlete?

  • Creatine

  • Glutamine

  • Growth hormone

Correct answer: Creatine

The use of any ergogenic aids should weigh the risks and benefits of consumption. Some, such as creatine, omega-3 fatty acids, and protein powder have been proven to provide performance or health benefits while carrying a low risk for side effects. Although supplements such as glutamine and arginine carry a low risk, they also have not been shown to provide consistent positive changes with their use. Other substances, such as growth hormone and anabolic-androgenic steroids, are also illegal, in addition to carrying a high risk of negative side effects.

Creatine monohydrate has been shown to be one of the most effective ergogenic aids. Creatine is a natural substance in the body but can also be consumed through foods such as fish and beef or through supplementation. Creatine can improve performance by providing more ATP, especially during high-intensity, short-duration activities. In addition, creatine may also play a role in preventing traumatic brain injuries. The only side effect associated with creatine supplementation is weight gain, making this supplement a high-benefit, low-risk option for performance enhancement.

44.

Which of the following foods has the highest GI value?

  • Cornflakes cereal

  • Rolled oats

  • White bread

  • Ice cream

Correct answer: Cornflakes cereal

Among the listed foods, cornflakes cereal, with a Glycemic Index (GI) value of 81, has the highest GI value. The glycemic index is a system that ranks foods on a scale from 0 to 100 based on how quickly and how much they raise blood sugar levels after eating. Foods with a high GI value (70 and above) are rapidly digested and absorbed, leading to a quicker and higher spike in blood sugar levels.

Other foods mentioned have lower GI values:

  • Rolled oats have a GI value of 55, classifying them as a low-GI food. This means they are digested and absorbed more slowly, leading to a gradual rise in blood sugar and insulin levels, which is beneficial for blood sugar control.
  • White bread has a GI value of 75, which places it in the high-GI category, but it is still lower than cornflakes. White bread is made from refined flour, which has had most of the fiber removed, leading to quicker digestion and absorption.
  • Ice cream has a GI value of 51, making it a low-GI food despite being high in sugar. The fat content in ice cream slows down the digestion process, resulting in a slower and lower rise in blood sugar levels.

The GI value of a food can be influenced by several factors, including the type of carbohydrate it contains, its fiber content, preparation methods, and the presence of fat or acid, which can slow down the digestion process. Choosing lower-GI foods can help manage blood sugar levels, which is particularly important for people with diabetes or those looking to maintain steady energy levels throughout the day.

45.

Which of the following is not one of the four categories of PA regarding the equations for estimating total energy requirements for adults?

  • Moderately Active

  • Sedentary

  • Very Active

  • Active

Correct answer: Moderately Active

While moderate activity is one type of activity, it is not one of the four categories of Physical Activity (PA) regarding the equations below.

The PA factor in equations estimating total energy requirements for adults typically falls into four main categories, each reflecting a different level of daily physical activity. These categories are essential for adjusting the Estimated Energy Requirement (EER) calculations based on an individual's lifestyle and activity levels. The four standard categories are as follows:

  • Sedentary: This category includes individuals who perform minimal or no physical activity beyond the basic movements for daily living. A sedentary lifestyle might involve sitting or lying down for most of the day with little to no vigorous physical activities.
  • Low Active: This level is for individuals who engage in some physical activity beyond basic daily living activities. It usually includes 30 to 60 minutes of daily moderate activity.
  • Active: The active category includes individuals perform typical daily living activities plus at least 60 minutes of daily moderate activity.
  • Very Active: This category is for individuals who engage in vigorous-intensity activities on most days. It includes typical daily living activities plus 60 minutes of daily moderate activity plus an additional 60 minutes of vigorous activity or 120 minutes of moderate activity.

46.

A trainer is planning to evaluate a group of new tactical athletes. All of the following should be used to generate an athletic profile except:

  • Administer the test to as few athletes as possible

  • Choose valid and reliable tests

  • Select tests that are closely related to the parameters of the sport

Correct answer: Administer the test to as few athletes as possible

An athletic profile is a group of test results related to sport-specific abilities that are important for quality performance in a sport or sport position.

These five things should be included when developing an athletic profile:

  1. Select tests that are closely related to the parameters of the sport
  2. Choose valid and reliable tests
  3. Administer the test battery to as many athletes as possible
  4. Calculate percentile ranks
  5. Evaluate the athlete based on percentile rank within the group and against the individual's best performances over previous years, if possible

47.

Dietitians, physical therapists, sports trainers, and strength and conditioning coaches for the tactical population are all examples of which of the following?

  • Support services

  • Awareness programs

  • Education sessions

  • Operational units

Correct answer: Support services

In the context of enhancing the health, wellness, and performance of tactical populations, dietitians, physical therapists, sports trainers, and strength and conditioning coaches play a crucial role as support services. 

These professionals provide essential expertise and interventions that directly impact an individual's physical readiness, recovery, and overall well-being. They work collaboratively to design and implement comprehensive programs tailored to the specific needs of tactical athletes, focusing on nutrition, injury prevention and rehabilitation, physical conditioning, and performance enhancement.

The following are the incorrect answer options:

  • Awareness programs: While important, this category primarily involves initiatives designed to educate and inform individuals about various health and wellness topics. Although dietitians and trainers may participate in these programs, their roles extend far beyond mere awareness creation to include direct, hands-on support and intervention.
  • Education sessions: These are typically standalone events or series of informational workshops aimed at teaching specific health, nutrition, or fitness topics. While dietitians and sports trainers often lead these sessions, the term education sessions does not fully encompass the broad scope of services they provide, which includes personalized consultation and program implementation.
  • Operational units: This term generally refers to functional groups within an organization tasked with executing specific operational duties. While support services personnel contribute to the operational effectiveness of tactical teams by improving members' health and performance, they themselves do not constitute operational units but rather support the function of these units.

48.

What muscle is most involved in a step-up?

  • Gluteus maximus 

  • Rectus abdominis 

  • Gluteus medius 

Correct answer: Gluteus maximus

The step-up exercise is a great tool for enhancing leg and hip strength.

The exercise involves a person holding weights in their hands or a barbell on their back while stepping up onto a box or bench that places the knee of the working leg at the same height or lower than the hip.

The step up exercise is considered a regression for individuals who cannot yet perform a walking lunge. The muscles used to perform this movement include the gluteus maximus as well as the hamstrings and quadriceps.

49.

Which of the following is an agonist in leg extension?

  • Quadriceps

  • Hamstrings

  • Gluteals

Correct answer: Quadriceps

The agonist is defined as the muscle or muscle group actively causing the movement. 

During leg extension, the quadriceps contract to straighten the knee from a flexed (bent) leg position to an extended (straight) leg position. Therefore, the quadriceps are the agonist in this movement.

50.

A trainer would like to test an athlete's muscular endurance. Which of the following tests would be the best option to measure local muscular endurance?

  • Push-up test

  • Running tests

  • Beep tests

Correct answer: Push-up test

The push-up test is a measurement of local muscular endurance in which an individual performs as many repetitions as possible within a given timeframe. This tests the ability to continue to work without fatigue over a period of time.

Both the running tests and beep tests measure aerobic fitness.

51.

During the predesign phase, when is a SWOT analysis performed?

  • When completing a feasibility study

  • When performing a needs analysis

  • When selecting an architectural plan

  • When creating the training facility master plan

Correct answer: When completing a feasibility study

A SWOT analysis, which stands for Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats, is a strategic planning tool used to evaluate these four elements within a project or business venture. In the context of constructing, remodeling, or adapting a training facility, the SWOT analysis is particularly important during the predesign phase as it provides critical insight that can influence the project's direction and feasibility. 

The feasibility study is an integral part of the predesign phase, assessing whether the project is viable, sustainable, and worth pursuing. Performing a SWOT analysis during this study helps identify the internal and external factors that could impact the project's success, thereby informing decision-making and strategy development.

Incorrect contexts for performing a SWOT analysis include:

  • When performing a needs analysis: While a needs analysis is crucial for understanding the requirements of the facility and its users, a SWOT analysis is specifically aligned with evaluating the project's broader strategic positioning rather than just its needs.
  • When selecting an architectural plan: Choosing an architectural plan involves considerations of design, functionality, and compliance with project goals and regulations, which might be informed by the outcomes of a SWOT analysis but is not the stage at which the analysis itself is conducted.
  • When creating the training facility master plan: Although the insights from a SWOT analysis can influence the master planning process by highlighting strategic opportunities and threats, the SWOT analysis itself is conducted earlier during the feasibility study to guide these broader strategic decisions.

A SWOT analysis is performed during the feasibility study within the predesign phase of a project involving the construction, remodeling, or adaptation of a training facility. This strategic assessment helps determine the project's strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats, guiding the decision-making process and ensuring that the project is set on a foundation for success.

52.

When analyzing the sarcomere, there are plenty of areas of overlap between myosin and actin. Which area of the sarcomere has no actin during the relaxation phase of muscle contraction?

  • H-zone

  • A-band

  • I-band

Correct answer: H-zone

The sarcomere consists of overlapping actin and myosin filaments. The following terms describe the different areas of the sarcomere:

I-band: Made up of solely actin filaments, the I-band corresponds with the areas in two different adjacent sarcomeres.

A-band: The A-band is the length of the myosin filaments within the sarcomere. Actin filaments partially overlap the myosin in this area during relaxation, and the overlap of the two increases as the muscle shortens during contraction. 

H-zone: Containing only myosin filaments, it becomes smaller as the overlap between actin and myosin increases during muscle contraction.

Z-line: This is the anchor point for the actin filaments and lies in the middle of the I-band. The Z-lines indicate the ends of the sarcomere and appears as a thin, dark line running longitudinally through the I-band.

53.

What is considered the baseline for obesity when using a body mass index (BMI) measurement?

  • ≥ 30

  • ≥ 25

  • ≥ 35

  • ≥ 20

Correct answer: ≥ 30

BMI, or body mass index, is calculated by taking an individual's weight in kilograms (kg) and dividing it by their height in meters squared (m2). The categories for BMI measurement are as follows:

  • Normal BMI: 18.5-24.99 kg/m2
  • Overweight BMI: 25-29.99 kg/m2
  • Obese BMI: ≥ 30 kg/m2

It's important to note that a BMI measurement may not be an entirely accurate representation of body fat status for muscular individuals, and in such cases should be used in conjunction with a waist circumference or body fat percentage test. However, in most cases, BMI is an accurate representation of body fat levels and often even health status. High BMI measurements can negatively impact performance and should be monitored in tactical athletes.

Individuals in tactical professions that include a lot of sedentary time are more prone to having a higher BMI as well as increased health risks.

54.

Which of the following is the outcome of a detailed architectural blueprint of the fitness facility? 

  • Design phase

  • Predesign phase

  • Construction phase

  • Preoperation phase

Correct answer: Design phase

The development of a detailed architectural blueprint for a fitness facility is a key outcome of the design phase in the process of facility planning and construction. This phase involves finalizing the specific details of the facility's layout, structural elements, and functional areas, ensuring that the design meets both the operational needs and the aesthetic preferences of the facility. 

Here's a brief overview of the phases mentioned and how they relate to the creation of a fitness facility:

  • Design phase: During the design phase, architects and planners translate the conceptual and programmatic needs identified during earlier stages into detailed, technical blueprints. These blueprints specify everything from the structural supports to the locations of electrical outlets, ensuring that the final construction will meet the intended purposes and comply with all relevant codes and standards.
  • Predesign phase: This initial phase includes the assessment of needs, setting of goals, and development of a concept for the facility. It might involve feasibility studies, financial planning, and site selection but precedes the detailed design work.
  • Construction phase: Following the design phase, the construction phase involves the actual building of the facility based on the detailed blueprints developed during the design phase. This is where the physical structure is erected, and the plans come to life.
  • Preoperation phase: This phase occurs after construction is completed and before the facility opens for business. It includes hiring staff, setting up operational policies and procedures, installing equipment, and preparing the facility for its grand opening.

The detailed architectural blueprint of the fitness facility is a direct outcome of the design phase, where the conceptual and functional requirements of the facility are translated into technical specifications that guide its construction.

55.

Which of the following will have the highest MET value?

  • Walking at a pace of 3.5 miles/hour on a level surface

  • Riding a stationary bike at 50 watts

  • Stair-stepping (4-inch height) at 20 steps per minute

Correct answer: Walking at a pace of 3.5 miles/hour on a level surface

If you're basing your training methods on METs (metabolic equivalents) you must understand which activities have higher MET values.

Metabolic equivalents refers to the amount of oxygen consumption an activity requires. 

Walking at a pace of 3.5 miles/hour on a level surface has a MET value of 3.8.

Riding a stationary bike at 50 watts has a MET value of 3.0.

Stair-stepping (4-inch height) at 20 steps per minute has a MET value of 3.5.

56.

Which mineral plays a role in the bone mineral matrix as well as cardiovascular and nervous system function?

  • Magnesium

  • Zinc

  • Manganese

  • Iron

Correct answer: Magnesium

Magnesium is considered a major mineral and plays a role in many crucial systems in the body. In addition to being a part of the bone mineral matrix along with other minerals such as calcium and phosphorous, magnesium also contributes to both cardiovascular and nervous system function. The recommended intake of magnesium for adults is 310-420 mg with an upper limit of 350 mg consumed as a dietary supplement.

Good food sources of magnesium include green leafy vegetables, nuts, seeds, chocolate, legumes and wheat bran.

57.

Which muscle group is not involved in the barbell military press?

  • Posterior deltoids

  • Anterior deltoids

  • Triceps brachii

Correct answer: Posterior deltoids

To perform the barbell military press, the lifter uses the arms and shoulders to press the barbell from their shoulders to above their head for a specified number of repetitions. It can be done standing or seated. The major muscle groups involved are the anterior and medial deltoids and the triceps brachii.

58.

Which of the following is not a role of a nutritionist?

  • Diagnosis of gastrointestinal disorders

  • Specialized menu planning

  • Referral and treatment of eating disorders

Correct answer: Diagnosis of gastrointestinal disorders

A nutritionist has many roles, but diagnosing gastrointestinal disorders is not one of them. The following list includes some of the responsibilities of a nutritionist:

  • Nutritional counseling: weight loss/gain, strategies to improve performance, menu planning, dietary supplements
  • Dietary analysis of food records
  • Nutritional education: presentations and handouts
  • Referral and treatment of eating disorders

59.

What is the role of insulin in the body?

  • To facilitate the uptake of glucose into the cells

  • To drive more glucose into the bloodstream

  • To enhance protein catabolism

Correct answer: To facilitate the uptake of glucose into the cells

Insulin is a hormone secreted by the pancreas in response to elevations in blood glucose. Its role is to facilitate the uptake of glucose out of the bloodstream and into the cells. Glucagon is also released from the pancreas and triggers the release of glucose from the cells into the bloodstream, in order to increase blood glucose levels. These two hormones work together to regulate blood glucose.

60.

After Kara performs her first standing long jump, where at the foot is a marker placed to determine the length she has jumped?

  • The heel

  • The toes

  • There is no marker placed until the third attempt

Correct answer: The heel

When performing a standing long jump, the jumper is propelling as far forward as possible, jumping off both feet.

After landing, a marker is placed at the back edge of the heel and a measurement is made of the distance between the start line and the heel marker.