NSCA TSAC-F Exam Questions

Correct answer: Static stretch

A static stretch is a slow and constant stretch, with the end position held for 30 seconds.

During the supine knee flex, the person will lie on their back with the legs straight. They will then flex the right knee and hip, bringing the thigh toward the chest. Finally, they will place both hands just below the knee and continue to pull the thigh toward the chest. After a 30-60 second hold, they will switch legs and perform the same sequence.

Correct answer: Tapering

Tapering is an important component of a training program. It involves the systematic reduction of training duration and intensity, combined with an increased emphasis on technique work and nutritional intervention.

Detraining occurs when the athlete reduces the training duration or intensity or stops training altogether due to a break in the training program, injury, or illness.

Correct answer: Increase in mitochondrial density

There are some very specific adaptations that occur as a result of consistent resistance training:

• Increased muscle and fiber size
• Decreased capillary and mitochondrial density
• Increased short-term endurance
• Increased strength and power as well as increased rate of force production
• Increased glycogen stores

Mitochondrial density does not increase with consistent resistance training, but does increase with consistent aerobic training.

Correct answer: 3500 kcal

One pound (0.5 kg) of adipose tissue is the equivalent of 3500 kcal as a measure of energy. It is helpful to be aware of this information in particular when an individual is interested in gaining or losing bodyweight. An increase in 1 pound of bodyweight indicates that there was a caloric surplus of 3500 kcal over the amount of energy expended by the body. 

Fat loss recommendations include both increasing energy expenditure and reducing caloric intake to create a negative energy balance. However, it's important to keep this deficit within about 500 kcal/day to prevent hunger and to help promote success. At this level, the individual would have a deficit of 3500 calories each week, which should correlate with approximately a 1 pound weight loss each week. Increasing protein intake when in a negative energy balance can help maintain lean body mass.

Correct answer: Hip flexors

Both the sartorius and rectus femoris contribute to bringing the knee toward the chest to create hip flexion, along with other muscles such as the psoas major and the iliacus. The rectus femoris also contributes to knee extension, but the sartorius does not. 

The knee flexors include the hamstring group—the semitendinosus, semimembranosus, and biceps femoris. These muscles are also part of the hip extensors, along with the gluteus maximus.

Correct answer: The origin is the more stationary structure and the insertion is the more mobile structure

Each muscle in the body has both an origin and insertion—places on either end of the muscle where the muscle is attached to the supporting structures, usually connecting tendon to bone. The origin is a muscle's most proximal (toward the center of the body) attachment, and its insertion is its distal (away from the center of the body) attachment. 

Sometimes an origin can be referred to as more of a stationary structure, while the insertion is more mobile as an attachment. This is because the insertion of the muscle is where movement occurs when the muscle contracts. For example, when the biceps brachii contract, the insertion of the muscle pulls on the forearm, which results in elbow flexion as the muscle shortens, while the origin of the muscle stayed anchored.

Correct answer: Mitochondrial density

There are several physiological variables that increase or decrease as a result of resistance training. Mitochondrial density is an example of something that decreases.

Muscular strength, muscle fiber size, anaerobic power, rate of force development, and cytoplasmic density are examples of variables that increase after resistance training.

Correct answer: Explosively jump up, bring the knees toward the chest and briefly touch the knees with the hands

Pike jumps are considered a low- to moderate-intensity lower-body plyometric jump. 

During the jump, the jumper will explosively jump up using a countermovement jump. Once they leave the ground, they will bend the knees and bring the knees up toward the chest, briefly touching the knees with the hands at the top of the jump. They land in athletic position with shoulders over the knees and knees in line with the toes. This jump is performed in place.

Correct answer: High-knee drills

High-knee drills are crucial for tactical athletes due to their emphasis on engaging the gluteus maximus during each motion. This type of drill promotes a powerful leg drive, essential for explosive movements and improving overall athleticism. By focusing on high knee lifts, athletes directly work on the muscle groups necessary for sprinting and quick directional changes, enhancing performance in various operational tasks.

Below, are the explanations for the other answer options:

• A-drills: Although A-drills incorporate a range of movements designed to improve running mechanics and agility, they do not specifically target the gluteus maximus for power generation in the same focused manner as high-knee drills.
• B-drills: B-drills also aim to improve running form and efficiency but are more concerned with the back kick or recovery phase of the running cycle. They don’t emphasize the use of the gluteus maximus for a powerful leg drive as directly as high-knee drills.
• Ankling drills: These drills focus on the ankle's movement and foot positioning to improve running technique and efficiency. While beneficial for overall performance, Ankling drills do not specifically target the gluteus maximus or prioritize the development of a powerful leg drive through high knee action.

Correct answer: 24 inches

The hexagon test is a measurement of agility in which the person begins double-leg hopping from the center of the hexagon over each side and back to the center, recording the time it takes to complete a full round.

Correct answer: 23%

In the United States Navy, physical fitness standards are crucial for ensuring that personnel maintain the level of physical readiness required for their duties. These standards vary by age and sex, reflecting the recognition that physical capabilities and health markers such as body fat percentage can differ significantly across these groups. 

For a 22-year-old male, the Navy sets specific fitness standards to ensure that individuals are at a physical condition conducive to operational effectiveness and personal health.

The minimum fitness standard for a 22-year-old male in terms of body fat percentage for the US Navy is 23%. This standard is part of a comprehensive fitness program designed to maintain a level of physical readiness that meets the demanding nature of naval service. The 23% body fat threshold is established based on health and performance research, aiming to balance the requirements of physical readiness with realistic, attainable goals for service members.

The other percentages mentioned, 18%, 28%, and 32%, represent different standards that may apply to other age groups, sexes, or not at all. Specifically:

• 18% is often considered an optimal fitness level for younger males in general fitness contexts but is not the minimum requirement for 22-year-old males in the Navy.
• 28% and 32% body fat percentages exceed the Navy's standards for young males, potentially indicating a level of body fat that could impact physical performance and health.

The establishment of a 23% body fat maximum for 22-year-old males reflects the Navy's commitment to promoting health, fitness, and readiness among its personnel. By setting and enforcing these standards, the Navy ensures that its members are prepared for the physical challenges of their service while also emphasizing the importance of health and well-being.

Correct answer: Drop squat

The drop squat is an excellent drill that can be used to teach and reinforce proper landing mechanics. It's vital to first teach individuals how to land correctly to ensure optimal performance and safety during plyometric training. In addition to teaching mechanics, drills such as this one and the drop lunge also help build eccentric strength, which is important for good landings.

The drop squat is performed by standing tall, raising up onto the toes, and then quickly jump the feet out to land in the athletic position—with the chest up, feet shoulder-width apart, and the hips, knees, and ankles slightly bent to absorb the force of the landing.

The box jump is a low- to moderate-intensity drill, while the depth jump is a more advanced, moderate- to high-intensity drill that should not be used by inexperienced beginners.

Correct answer: 10 yards

When setting up the T-drill, a popular agility training exercise used to assess an athlete's quickness and ability to change directions efficiently, the cones should be placed to form a T shape with each cone 10 yards apart. This setup ensures the drill provides a consistent challenge to the athlete's agility and speed by requiring them to cover a significant distance while making sharp turns. 

Here's how the correct answer compares to the other options provided:

• 2 yards: This distance is too short and would not provide an adequate challenge to an athlete's agility or speed. It would limit the effectiveness of the drill in developing these physical attributes.
• 4 yards: Similar to two yards, this distance is also too short to effectively challenge or improve an athlete's agility and quickness. The drill would become too easy and not as beneficial.
• 8 yards: Although closer to the correct answer, eight yards still falls short of the recommended distance for maximizing the drill's effectiveness in enhancing agility and speed.

Placing the cones 10 yards apart to form a T shape is the recommended setup for the T-drill according to agility training standards. This setup provides an appropriate level of difficulty to help athletes improve their agility, speed, and ability to change directions quickly.

Correct answer: Lack of activities

For tactical athletes, the choice not to engage in exercise does not typically stem from a scarcity of available activities. Instead, it often arises from other significant factors that can impede their willingness or ability to incorporate physical training into their routines. 

Notably, fatigue and lethargy are common barriers, as the demanding schedules and stressors associated with tactical professions can lead to both physical and mental exhaustion, making the thought of additional exercise less appealing. 

Furthermore, the challenge of time allocation plays a crucial role; with the rigorous demands of their jobs, finding sufficient time to dedicate to exercise amidst professional responsibilities and personal commitments can be difficult. 

Contrary to the idea of lack of activities, these professionals usually have access to various training programs and resources. The key obstacles are instead related to energy levels, motivation, and the practicality of fitting exercise into a busy schedule.

Correct answer: [weight (pounds) / height (inches)² ] x 703

Matching specific units is vital to reaching the correct answer. Pounds much match up with inches, and kilograms must match up with meters. 

If you were to use kilograms and meters, the formula would look like this:

[weight (kg) / height (meters)² ] 

NOTE: Do not multiply by 703 when using kg and meters.

It's important to take other factors into consideration when determining obesity rates, especially among tactical populations. Muscular individuals will be labeled as overweight or obese if only using the BMI calculation. Instead, this should also be compared with waist circumference or body fat % for a more accurate evaluation.

Correct answer: Resistance phase

During the alarm phase, training begins and the individual experiences fatigue and a temporary decrease in performance. 

After the initial shock to the body (the alarm phase), the body becomes accustomed to the stress it has faced and becomes more resistant to it. In this phase, the body returns to more normal function after the soreness and stiffness of the alarm phase. This is the resistance phase.

If the balance between load and recovery is appropriate, they will reach a new, elevated performance level and establish a new baseline in the supercompensation phase. If, however, recovery is insufficient, they will instead potentially enter an overtraining phase.

Correct answer: Lactate threshold

Lactate threshold (LT) is the percentage of VO2 max at which a specific blood lactate concentration begins to increase above resting levels. This occurs during training, when the body's ability to remove lactate from the blood (lactate clearance) is exceeded by the production of lactate. The lactate threshold is a good indication of cardiovascular fitness.

Trained individuals have a higher lactate threshold, meaning that they can work at higher intensities before this increase of blood lactate occurs and fatigue sets in. The LT in trained individuals is typically 70-80% of their VO2 max, while is it typically 50-60% in untrained individuals.

Correct answer: 1 to 3 days per week

When crafting a training regimen centered on power development for a tactical athlete, the recommended frequency is one to three days per week. This range allows sufficient recovery between sessions, essential for the muscles to repair and adapt to the high-intensity demands of power training. Such training typically involves explosive movements that necessitate a high level of neuromuscular activation and muscle recruitment, making adequate recovery crucial to prevent overtraining and injury.

In contrast, opting for power training two to four days, three to five days, or four to six days per week might not provide adequate recovery time, potentially leading to diminished returns and increased risk of overuse injuries. With that said, it is recommended to perform strength-focused training three to five days per week for each muscle group.

The chosen frequency of one to three days ensures that the athlete can focus on quality over quantity, maximizing the effectiveness of each session through well-rested muscles and nervous system, thereby facilitating optimal improvements in power.

Correct answer: 20 to 25 grams of protein

For optimal performance, it's recommended that a tactical athlete consumes 20 to 25 grams of protein prior to a mission. This amount of protein helps to ensure sufficient energy, aids in muscle repair and recovery, and supports overall physical readiness without overburdening the digestive system.

Below are explanations for the other answer options:

• 10 to 15 grams of protein: While some protein intake is better than none, 10 to 15 grams may not be sufficient for optimal muscle repair and recovery, especially for the demands placed on tactical athletes. This range is on the lower end and may not fully support the synthesis of new muscle proteins needed for recovery and performance.
• 15 to 20 grams of protein: This is closer to the recommended range but still falls slightly short. It may be adequate for very light activities or for smaller individuals, but for most tactical athletes engaging in intensive activities, the higher end of the recommended range is more beneficial.
• 25 to 30 grams of protein: Consuming more than the recommended 20 to 25 grams of protein before a mission can still be beneficial for some individuals, especially those with higher muscle mass or who engage in very strenuous activities. However, excessive protein intake right before physical activity can lead to discomfort, as the body may not have enough time to effectively digest and utilize such a high amount of protein. 

This makes the 20-to-25-grams range a more universally recommended amount to optimize both comfort and performance.

Correct answer: 80-90 RPM

Cycling can be a great low-impact option to train aerobic endurance. It can be used at various durations and intensities to target the different energy systems. A higher pedaling cadence (120 RPM+) can be used to challenge the lactate threshold, but a cadence of 80-90 RPM (revolutions per minute) has been shown to be optimal for power and efficiency. Higher cadences are more difficult to sustain, while a cadence of 80-90 can help minimize fatigue.