NSCA TSAC-F Exam Questions

Correct answer: Ballistic stretching

A ballistic stretch involves active muscular effort to perform static stretching type movements except that the individual doesn't hold the end position but instead uses a bouncing or jerking type movement to create the stretch. Historically, this type of stretching was used for pre-game or pre-activity warm-ups, however, there is concern about ballistic stretching being detrimental to muscles and/or connective tissues. Ballistic stretching often triggers the stretch reflex which causes the involved muscle to contract instead of relax. This response is what increases the risk of tissue injury when performing ballistic stretches.

Correct answer: Across the posterior deltoids at the middle of the trapezius

The back squat is a staple exercise for increasing strength and power ability. There are two positions for the barbell, characterized as low bar and high bar positions.

The low bar position is across the posterior deltoids at the middle of the trapezius.

The high bar position is above the posterior deltoids at the base of the neck.

Correct answer: What is the annual revenue target for the training facility?

During the needs analysis phase of planning a new training facility, especially one aimed at tactical athletes, the focus is primarily on understanding the facility's purpose, the specific user group it aims to serve, and its capacity to meet these users' needs. This phase is crucial for laying the foundation of a facility that is both functional and aligned with its intended mission and user base. 

What is the annual revenue target for the training facility? does not fall within the scope of questions that should be answered during the needs analysis phase. While financial planning and sustainability are crucial for the facility's long-term success, the annual revenue target is more closely related to the business planning and financial management aspects of the facility. 

The key questions that need to be addressed during this phase include the following:

• What is the mission of the training facility? This question aims to clarify the facility's overarching goals and objectives. Understanding the mission helps in guiding all subsequent planning, ensuring that the facility's design and operations align with its core purpose.
• What category of tactical athlete will use the training facility? Tactical athletes can come from various backgrounds, including military, law enforcement, and emergency services. Identifying the specific category or categories of athletes the facility will serve is vital for tailoring the design, equipment, and programs to their unique physical and operational needs.
• What is the number of tactical athletes that the facility can accommodate per training session? This question helps in determining the size and scope of the facility. It's important for ensuring that the space is adequately equipped and sized to handle the expected number of users without compromising on the quality of training or safety.

What is the annual revenue target for the training facility? pertains to the operational and business strategy development stages, where financial goals, pricing strategies, and revenue generation mechanisms are established. The needs analysis phase, in contrast, is more focused on the facility's functional requirements and strategic objectives to meet the specific needs of its users.

Correct answer: 5x10 second max-effort sprints with a 2 minute recovery

The ATP/CP energy system always provides the energy at the onset of exercise. However, after 10 seconds, the ATP/CP has depleted and if exercise or movement is continued, the body begins to use the glycolytic and then the oxidative pathways to provide energy to the body. In order to develop any of the energy systems, it's important to structure the durations and intensities that correspond to the selected energy system. 

It may be beneficial for tactical athletes to train all three systems; however, this must be done separately. In order to focus on the ATP/CP system, effort must be near maximal or at least very high-intensity, with efforts lasting 10 seconds or less. Longer sprint times would begin to train a different energy system. Recommended rest times always increase when intensity is higher, and when training the ATP/CP system, rest times should be 10-20 times as long as the work intervals. 

Therefore, sets of 10-second max-effort sprints are the most appropriate duration to train this energy system. A 30 second recovery would only be a work:rest ratio of 1:3, and it should be 1:10 up to 1:20. Therefore, the programmed rest time for a 10 second sprint should be anywhere from 100 seconds to 200 seconds, or approximately from 1 min 40 seconds up to 3 min 20 seconds. The best listed option for this training goal is 5x10 second max-effort sprints with a 2 minute recovery.

Correct answer: CPT

Given the specialized knowledge and legal authorization required to provide detailed nutritional advice and meal planning, a CPT certification alone does not meet the main prerequisite for this scope of practice in most states requiring licensure. Instead, individuals seeking to legally prescribe meal plans and provide in-depth nutritional counseling typically need to pursue specific credentials in the field of nutrition or dietetics.

In many places, providing nutritional advice or meal plans, especially if it is in a clinical or medical context, requires specific educational qualifications and licensure, typically in the field of dietetics or nutrition.

A Certified Personal Trainer (CPT) credential primarily focuses on physical fitness, exercise programming, and the fundamentals of motivational coaching. While CPT programs may include basic nutrition education, this is generally limited to general wellness advice rather than personalized nutrition planning or medical nutrition therapy. The scope of practice for personal trainers typically excludes in-depth nutrition counseling or prescribing detailed meal plans, particularly for clients with specific health conditions or dietary needs.

In contrast, professions that are usually authorized to discuss nutrition in depth and prescribe meal plans include:

• Registered Dietitians (RD) or Registered Dietitian Nutritionists (RDN): These professionals have completed a bachelor's degree (or higher) in dietetics or a related field, a comprehensive internship, and passed a national examination. They are qualified to provide specific dietary advice and medical nutrition therapy based on individual health needs.
• Certified Nutrition Specialists (CNS): CNS professionals often hold advanced degrees in nutrition or a related field, have completed supervised practice hours, and passed a certification exam. They are trained to assess individual nutritional needs, develop personalized nutrition plans, and manage complex health conditions through dietary interventions.
• Licensed Nutritionists (LN): Some states have licensure for nutritionists, which may require specific educational credentials and professional experience. The scope of practice for licensed nutritionists can vary by state but generally includes the ability to provide individualized nutrition counseling and planning.

Correct answer: Preoperation phase

The preoperation phase in the development and opening of a fitness facility is specifically focused on preparing the facility for its initial operation. This includes crucial activities such as staff recruitment and staff training, along with purchasing equipment, developing operational policies, and marketing the facility to potential clients. 

Here’s how the preoperation phase compares to the other phases mentioned:

• Preoperation phase: After the physical construction of the facility is complete, the preoperation phase begins. It's during this time that the management focuses on hiring qualified staff and providing them with the necessary training to ensure they can offer the best services once the facility opens. This phase ensures that all operational elements are in place for a smooth launch.
• Predesign phase: This initial phase involves assessing needs, setting goals, conceptualizing the facility, and conducting feasibility studies. It sets the foundation for the project but does not involve staff recruitment or training.
• Design phase: In this phase, architects and planners create detailed blueprints and designs for the facility. This phase focuses on the physical layout and structure of the facility, not on staffing or staff development.
• Construction phase: This phase involves the actual building of the facility based on the plans developed during the design phase. While critical to bringing the design to life, it does not encompass staff recruitment or training activities.

The preoperation phase is crucial for ensuring that a fitness facility is ready for business, focusing on staffing, training, and other operational preparations. This phase is distinct from the predesign, design, and construction phases, which deal with earlier steps in the facility development process.

Correct answer: 75 grams

The best way to determine the number of grams required is to first calculate how many calories should come from fat (30% of the total calorie intake). Then, divide that number by the number of calories per gram of fat (9 kcal/g). This is the number of grams of fat that should be consumed each day.

1. 2250 kcal x 30% = 2250 kcal x .3 = 675 calories from fat

2. 675 kcal / 9 kcal/g = 75 g of fat

This athlete should consume 75 g of fat each day.

The recommended upper intake level for dietary fats for the general population is 30%. However, tactical athletes may benefit from an increased fat intake, of 35% or even higher.

Correct answer: Prone start

In designing a fundamental agility skills program for a tactical athlete, including the prone start would be least appropriate. The prone start is primarily an acceleration drill, focused on the initial burst of speed from a stationary position. This type of drill emphasizes rapid acceleration and the transition to full-speed running, which, while important, does not align with the primary objectives of an agility-focused program aimed at improving the athlete's ability to quickly change directions, maintain balance, and react to visual or auditory cues.

On the other hand, drills like the open step, crossover step, and rounding cone are more suited to developing agility because they directly engage the athlete in movements that require balance, coordination, and the ability to change direction efficiently. 

• Open step: This teaches athletes to move laterally with quick, controlled steps, a fundamental skill for dodging obstacles or opponents.
• Crossover step: The crossover step improves lateral movement efficiency and the ability to quickly change direction, essential for navigating through tight spaces or avoiding sudden threats.
• Rounding cone: This drill enhances the ability to maintain speed while changing direction, critical for pursuing or evading in field scenarios.

These drills foster agility by replicating the multi-directional movements and quick decision-making that tactical athletes encounter in their duties, making them more relevant choices for a fundamental agility skills program.

Correct answer: Static stretch

A static stretch is a slow and constant stretch, with the end position held for 30-60 seconds.

The sitting toe touch is a good example of a static stretch. The person sits on the ground with the legs together and knees extended, leaning forward from the waist and slowly reaching toward the ankles. The person will hold this position for 30-60 seconds and repeat for multiple sets.

Correct answer: At the beginning of a training session

Because of their high neuromuscular and motor coordination demands, speed and agility tasks should be conducted early in a training session, before other fatiguing exercises.

Correct answer: 30 to 60 grams per hour

For extended missions lasting several hours, it's recommended that a tactical athlete consume between 30 to 60 grams of carbohydrates per hour to maintain energy levels and performance. 

Consuming less than 30 grams per hour (such as 20 to 40 grams) may not provide sufficient energy for prolonged physical activity. 

On the other hand, ingesting too much, like 80 to 120 grams or even 120 to 140 grams per hour, could exceed the body's ability to metabolize carbohydrates efficiently, possibly leading to gastrointestinal discomfort or diminished performance due to fluctuations in blood sugar levels. 

Therefore, the range of 30 to 60 grams per hour strikes a balance that can help sustain energy without causing adverse effects.

Correct answer: A low caloric intake

Resting metabolic rate (RMR) is the largest contributor to total energy expenditure, and increasing RMR can help a person lose weight.

Factors increasing RMR are an increase in lean body tissue, being young, abnormal body temperature, menstrual cycle, and hyperthyroidism.

Factors decreasing RMR include low caloric intake, loss of lean tissue, and hypothyroidism.

Correct answer: The pressure on the arterial walls following ventricular contraction

Blood pressure is a common measuring tool that includes two readings—a systolic number (the first one) and a diastolic number (the second one).

Systolic blood pressure refers to the pressure on the vessels after the heart contracts, sending blood into the arteries.

Diastolic blood pressure refers to the pressure in the vessels following the relaxation of the heart.

Correct answer: Acceleration drills

Acceleration drills are the most suitable training choice for a tactical athlete preparing for occupation-specific scenarios like running for cover, chasing an assailant, and rushing up a hill. These drills focus on improving an athlete's ability to quickly increase speed from a stationary or slow-moving state, which is essential in many tactical situations where rapid response is critical.

• A-drills - While useful for improving running form and efficiency, A-drills primarily focus on leg mechanics and posture during running. They do not specifically target the rapid acceleration needed in dynamic tactical situations.
• B-Drills: B-drills progress from A-drills to further refine running mechanics, specifically the active landing of the foot. Although beneficial for overall running performance, they do not concentrate on the ability to accelerate quickly from various starting positions, which is crucial for tactical athletes.
• Fast-leg drills: Fast-leg drills are designed to increase leg turnover rate and improve running speed over distance. While they contribute to speed development, they do not specifically address the short, explosive bursts of acceleration required in the described tactical situations. Acceleration drills, on the other hand, directly train the athlete to rapidly increase speed, making them more applicable for preparing for sudden movements and responses in a tactical context.

Correct answer: Outside the lifter's hands, a few inches below the bar

When performing the seated barbell military press, a spotter is needed. The spotter should place their hands just outside of the lifter's hands, but a few inches below the bar, following the movement of the bar during the lift. This way, the spotter is in a position to quickly and safely provide assistance to the lifter as needed. 

Correct answer: Fibrocartilage

Fibrocartilage is a very tough form of cartilage found in the intervertebral disks of the spine and in the menisci in the knee. It is designed to protect the joints from heavy downward pressure, such as that experienced during daily weight-bearing activities.

Hyaline cartilage is an articular cartilage that is found on the articulating surface of bone. It allows both flexibility and support for the joints. Elastic cartilage, which is the type of cartilage found in the ear, can tolerate being distorted and and still returns to its normal shape.

Correct answer: 125 pounds

To meet the physical fitness test requirements for entering the fire service, your tactical athlete will be required to lift and carry a weight of 125 pounds for a distance of 100 feet without stopping. This task is designed to simulate the physical demands of carrying equipment or potentially assisting in carrying victims in emergency situations. 

Here's why the other options are incorrect:

• 115 pounds: While this weight is close to the required standard, it falls short of the 125 pounds required to adequately represent the physical demands faced by firefighters during actual fireground operations.
• 105 pounds: This weight is significantly less than the required standard, and thus, would not sufficiently prepare or test an individual's ability to handle the heavier loads commonly encountered in firefighting scenarios.
• 95 pounds: This is the furthest from the actual requirement and would not challenge the candidate enough to ensure they are capable of performing the rigorous physical tasks that are part of a firefighter's duties.

The requirement to lift and carry 125 pounds for 100 feet is a direct reflection of the real-world physical demands of firefighting, ensuring that only those who are physically capable and prepared for the challenges of the job are selected.

Correct answer: The arm should be 45 degrees away from the body, with the bottom of the dumbbell in line with the top of the chest

The alternate-arm dumbbell (DB) bench press challenges individuals to keep one DB steady and controlled while lowering and lifting the other DB. The moving arm should be lowered at a 45 degree angle to the torso until the bottom of the DB is in line with the top of the chest. Lowering the DB below this height places the shoulder in a position that could increase risk to the shoulder.

The free arm should remain as still as possible while the other arm is moving. It's also important to maintain the five points of contact (head, shoulders, hips, and feet) throughout the entire exercise, as with any bench press exercise. A spotter is useful on this exercise to help control the DBs and provide assistance as needed.

Correct answer: Beef

Protein quality is often measured using the protein digestibility-corrected amino acid score (PDCAA), which indicates how well a protein is digested as well as evaluating its amino acid content. Highly digestible proteins that contain all of the essential amino acids are assigned a score of 1.00. Casein, whey, egg whites and soy protein isolate all have a PDCAA of 1.00. Beef has a score of .92.

Correct answer: Type I

Muscle fibers can be classified based on their contraction speed, force production, size, and metabolic capabilities. Among the types mentioned, Type I fibers, also known as slow-twitch fibers, are characterized by their high oxidative capacity, low contractile force, and small size. These fibers are designed for endurance and can sustain activity for long periods without fatigue, thanks to their efficient use of oxygen to generate energy.

The correct answer and the other answer options are described as follows:

• Type I (Slow-Twitch) Fibers: These fibers have a high density of mitochondria, rich capillary networks, and abundant myoglobin, contributing to their high oxidative capacity and endurance. They are smaller in diameter and generate less force, making them ideal for activities like long-distance running or cycling.
• Type II (Fast-Twitch) Fibers: These fibers are further categorized into Type IIa and Type IIx (or IIb, depending on the classification system), with differences in their oxidative and glycolytic capacities.
• Type IIa (Fast Oxidative Glycolytic) Fibers: These are somewhat of a middle ground between Type I and Type IIx fibers, possessing both high oxidative capacity and the ability to generate more force than Type I fibers, but less than Type IIx. They are larger than Type I fibers and can sustain activity for a moderate duration.
• Type IIx (or IIb) Fibers: These have the highest contractile force and size among the fiber types but have a low oxidative capacity. They rely more on anaerobic metabolism, making them suited for short, explosive activities like sprinting or lifting heavy weights. They fatigue quickly due to their limited use of oxygen.

Type I fibers are uniquely adapted for endurance thanks to their energy efficiency and ability to resist fatigue, contrasting with Type II fibers, which are tailored for strength, speed, and power but fatigue more rapidly.