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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

PTCB PTCE Exam Questions

Page 10 of 50

181.

Which of the following stimulants is not classified as a controlled substance? 

  • Intuniv 

  • Focalin

  • Vyvanse 

  • Concerta

Correct answer: Intuniv 

Intuniv (guanfacine) is classified as a stimulant used in the treatment of ADHD, but is not a controlled substance like many other stimulants. 

Focalin (dexmethylphenidate), Vyvanse (lisdexamfetamine), and Concerta (methylphenidate ER) are considered schedule II stimulants and have a high potential for abuse and psychological/physiological dependence. 

182.

Which of the following classes of medication is not considered high-alert? 

  • Anticholinergic 

  • Anticoagulants 

  • Opioids 

  • Neuromuscular blockades 

Correct answer: Anticholinergic 

Anticholinergics are not considered a high-alert class of medication. 

Anticoagulants, opioids, and neuromuscular blockades are all considered high-alert classes of medication that have a high likelihood of causing serious harm, especially if used inappropriately. 

183.

When is it necessary to complete DEA Form 104?

  • When a pharmacy is surrendering its pharmacy permit

  • When a pharmacy is applying for its DEA registration

  • When a pharmacy is ordering Schedule II controlled substances

  • When a pharmacy is destroying controlled substances

Correct answer: When a pharmacy is surrendering its pharmacy permit

DEA Form 104 is completed when a pharmacy is surrendering its pharmacy permit.

DEA Form 224 is completed when a pharmacy is applying for its DEA registration. DEA Form 222 is completed when a pharmacy is ordering Schedule II controlled substances. DEA Form 41 is completed when a pharmacy is destroying controlled substances.

184.

A controlled substance medication is recalled by which of the following agencies?

  • Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

  • Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

  • Institute of Safe Medication Practices

  • United States Pharmacopeia (USP)

Correct answer: Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) may issue a drug recall. The drug manufacturer and the wholesaler may also issue a drug recall. A list of medication recalls can be located on the Food and Drug Administration’s website.

Although the medication is a controlled substance, the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) does not have control over recalling medications. Instead, the DEA ensures that controlled substances align with the standards for manufacturing, distributing, and dispensing legally-produced controlled medications. The Institute of Safe Medication Practices provides resources such as black box warnings, error-prone abbreviations lists, and tall man letters. The United States Pharmacopeia (USP) establishes the standards for the quality and purity of medications, food ingredients, and supplements.

185.

Which of the following best describes a medication error?

  • A mistake involving medication that is preventable

  • A medication that does harm to a patient

  • A prescription medication error that goes undetected

  • An over-the-counter medication overdose

Correct answer: A mistake involving medication that is preventable

A medication error is a mistake involving medication that is preventable. Medication errors often go undetected, and they are classified as an error regardless of whether it was done on purpose or if it was a mistake. Medication errors can occur with both prescription medications and over-the-counter medications.

A medication that does harm to a patient is incorrect because some medication errors do not cause harm. A prescription medication error that goes undetected is incorrect because medication errors can be detected or not detected. An over-the-counter medication overdose is incorrect because medication errors can occur with prescription medications and over-the-counter medications.

186.

According to USP <797>, how long must a compounding record be maintained for?

  • 3 years

  • 6 months

  • 1 year

  • 2 years

Correct answer: 3 years

Written documentation is required to demonstrate full compliance with USP <797>. Compounding records contain all the information of the finished compounded products, and the records must be maintained for a minimum of 3 years from the date the medication was prepared or the timeframe required by state law, whichever is greater.

187.

The suffix "-oma" indicates which of the following?

  • Tumor 

  • Pain 

  • Enzyme

  • The study of

Correct answer: Tumor

The suffix "-oma" means tumor. Examples are sarcoma and carcinoma.

The suffix "-algia" means pain. Examples are myalgia, fibromyalgia, and analgia.  The suffix "-ase" means enzyme. Examples are reductase and coagulase. The suffix "-logy" means the study of. Examples are physiology and biology.

188.

Which of the following conditions would not interfere with a pharmacy personnel's ability to prepare compounded sterile products (CSPs)?

  • Hypertension

  • Weeping sores

  • Conjunctivitis

  • Rashes

Correct answer: Hypertension

According to USP <797>, personnel with sunburn, rashes, weeping sores, conjunctivitis, active respiratory infection, and cosmetics are prohibited from preparing CSPs. Hypertension is not one of the conditions that would prohibit a personnel from preparing CSPs.

189.

Which of the following medications is known to cause drowsiness?

  • Librium

  • Strattera

  • Levemir

  • Estrace

Correct answer: Librium

Librium (chlordiazepoxide) is in a drug class called benzodiazepine, which are known to cause drowsiness. Benzodiazepines include drugs such as alprazolam, chlordiazepoxide, clobazam, clonazepam, diazepam, lorazepam, midazolam, temazepam, and triazolam. Benzodiazepines are used for indications such as anxiety, insomnia, agitation, seizures, muscle spasms, and alcohol withdrawal.

Strattera is a selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor that is used to treat attention deficit, but is not a stimulant like Adderall. Levemir is an insulin and can cause hypoglycemia or low blood sugar. Estrace is an estrogen derivative that is known to cause carcinogenic effects.

190.

You receive an order for a 1-L bag to be given over 12 hours. The tubing delivers 10 gtt/mL. What is the number of drops per minute?

  • 13.8 gtt/min

  • 1.38 gtt/min

  • 8.3 gtt/min

  • 16.6 gtt/min

Correct answer: 13.8 gtt/min

First, identify the drop factor: 10 gtt/mL

Next, identify how many milliliters will be delivered per hour: 1,000 mL/12 hr = 83.33 mL/hr (1 L = 1000 mL)

Then, identify how many milliliters per minute: (83.33 mL/1 hr) x (1 hr/60 min) = 1.38 mL/min

Finally, identify the drops per minute: 10 gtt/mL x 1.38 mL/min = 13.8 gtt/min

191.

Which of the following conditions is characterized by abnormally high internal eye pressure?

  • Glaucoma

  • Vertigo

  • Conjunctivitis

  • Otitis media

Correct answer: Glaucoma

Glaucoma is a chronic disorder that is characterized by abnormally high internal eye pressure that can damage the optical nerve and possibly lead to vision loss.

Vertigo is a sensation when an individual feels where the objects around them are moving, when, in reality, they are not, while conjunctivitis is an acute inflammation of the conjunctiva that is caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi, or allergies. Otitis media is an infection of the middle ear. 

192.

Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors (PDE-5 inhibitors) are used for which of the following indications?

  • Erectile dysfunction

  • Hypercholesterolemia

  • Cardiac arrhythmias

  • Vertigo

Correct answer: Erectile dysfunction

PDE-5 inhibitors are used for indications of erectile dysfunction. PDE-5 inhibitors are also used to treat pulmonary arterial hypertension. The generic names of PDE-5 inhibitors include sildenafil, tadalafil, and vardenafil.

Anti-arrhythmic agents are used for indications of cardiac arrhythmias. HMG-COA reductase inhibitors are used for indications of hypercholesterolemia. Anticholinergics are used for indications of vertigo.

193.

Which of the following medications is categorized as a high-alert medication in an acute care facility? 

  • Propofol

  • Carbamazepine 

  • Methotrexate

  • Warfarin

Correct answer: Propofol

Propofol is a general anesthetic used mainly in surgery. This is found in acute care facilities. 

Carbamazepine, methotrexate, and warfarin are high-alert medications found in ambulatory care facilities. 

194.

What color of DEA 222 form is retained by the drug supplier?

  • Brown

  • Green

  • Blue

  • White

Correct answer: Brown

Each DEA Form 222 includes 2 carbon copies (the original, plus 2 attached copies):

  • The first page (the original) is brown and must be retained by the drug supplier.
  • The second page (the 1st carbon copy) is green and must be forwarded to the DEA by the drug supplier.
  • The third page  (the 2nd carbon copy) is blue and must be retained by the pharmacy.

There is no white page.

195.

If a patient forgets to take their scheduled medication on a regular basis, it would be classified as what type of medication error?

  • Compliance error

  • Monitoring error

  • Omission error

  • Prescribing error

Correct answer: Compliance error

When a patient is not adherent with their prescribed medication regimen, it is classified as a compliance error.

If a practitioner does not review a patient’s prescribed medication regimens for potential problems, it is classified as a monitoring error. If a nurse fails to administer a resident’s prescribed medication, it is classified as an omission error. If a prescriber incorrectly prescribes a medication, it is classified as a prescribing error.

196.

If a patient has to pay $250 out of pocket before their prescription coverage starts, what is the patient paying?

  • The deductible

  • The fixed copayment

  • The percentage copayment

  • The variable copayment

Correct answer: The deductible

A deductible is a predetermined amount of money that a patient must pay before their prescription coverage starts.

A variable copayment varies based on the type of medication being dispensed. A percentage copayment is a predetermined percentage of the cost of the medication being filled. A fixed copayment is a flat-rate copayment based on a prescription’s tier level.

197.

If you have 1 L of a 1:150 solution, how many grams do you have?

  • 6.67 g

  • 66.7 g

  • 0.67 g

  • 666.7 g

Correct answer: 6.67 g

To solve, start by converting the 1:150 ratio to a fraction (1/150) and convert it to a decimal (0.00667).

Knowing that 1 L is equivalent to 1,000 mL, you will use the weight/volume equation to solve:

  1. FV x % (decimal) = Amount of AI (g)
  2. 1,000 mL x 0.00667 = 6.67 g

198.

All except which of the following is contained on the patient’s third-party prescription insurance card?

  • NPI number

  • BIN

  • Group number

  • Subscriber number

Correct answer: NPI number

The National Provider Identifier (NPI) number is a unique identifying number assigned to providers (i.e., pharmacies, physicians, pharmacists, nurses, etc.) and will not be found on a patient’s third-party prescription insurance card.

The information found on the patient’s third-party prescription insurance card is the bank identification number (BIN), processor control number (PCN), group number, help desk number, subscriber number, and relationship holder code.

199.

Which drug classification uses the suffix "–statin"?

  • HMG CoA reductase inhibitor

  • H2 receptor antagonist

  • Angiotensin II receptor antagonist

  • Steroid

Correct answer: HMG CoA reductase inhibitor

HMG CoA reductase inhibitor is the drug class that uses the suffix "–statin." HMG CoA reductase inhibitors are used to treat high cholesterol. Examples of HMG CoA reductase inhibitor include atorvastatin, fluvastatin, lovastatin, pitavastatin, pravastatin, rosuvastatin, and simvastatin.

The suffix "–tidine" is used for H2 receptor antagonist agents, while the suffix "–sartan" is used for angiotensin II receptor antagonist agents. The suffix "–olone" is used for steroid agents.

200.

Priapism and hypotension are side effects associated with which of the following drug classes?

  • Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors (PDE-5 inhibitors)

  • HMG-COA reductase inhibitors (statins)

  • Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

  • Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors (PDE-5 inhibitors)

Priapism and hypotension are side effects associated with the PDE-5 inhibitor drug class. The PDE-5 inhibitor drug class is used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary arterial hypertension. The generic names of the medications in this class end in "-afil" and include sildenafil, tadalafil, and vardenafil.

Muscle aches, constipation, and myopathy are side effects associated with the statin drug class. Weight gain, weight loss, and reduced sex drive are the side effects associated with the SSRI drug class. Heart palpitations, increased blood pressure, and tachycardia are side effects associated with the SNRI drug class.

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