CompTIA A+ Exam Questions

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121.

If you have a 2.4 GHz cordless phone near an 802.11b/g/n router, what type of interference does it create?

  • RFI

  • Broadcast storm

  • ESD

  • EMF

Correct answer: RFI

Radio frequency interference (RFI) occurs when devices send signals that interfere with other devices' radio waves. Specifically, cordless phones that operate on the 2.4 GHz frequency will interfere with the 802.11b/g/n standards because B/G/N wireless networks operate in the same frequency range. If cordless phones exist in proximity to wireless networks, it's advised that you use the 802.11n 5 GHz setting.

A broadcast storm is an excess of broadcast traffic on a network. Electrostatic discharge (ESD) is a shock that can harm computer components. An electromagnetic field (EMF) caused by magnets is not an issue with everyday magnets.

122.

A company is going to make some big changes to their IT infrastructure. What should they be sure to include in their change management plan in case there are problems with the new changes?

  • Rollback Plan

  • Sandbox Testing

  • Request Forms

  • Scope of Change

Correct answer: Rollback Plan

In case the changes do not work out as planned, then there should be a rollback plan which describes the steps needed to revert to the system's previous state. It's also possible to create an alternate plan if the original does not work out. 

Sandbox testing involves creating a testing environment to try the changes first. A request form is the initial document in the change management documentation that outlines the details of the change. A scope of change document describes the different systems that will be impacted by the change.

123.

Which command returns the name of the computer that the command prompt is on?

  • HOSTNAME

  • NET

  • NSLOOKUP

  • GPRESULT

Correct answer: HOSTNAME

The HOSTNAME command returns the name of the computer that is at the command prompt. This is useful for confirming which machine you are connected to when using a terminal window to connect to various systems.

The NET command can be used to map shared drives or to manage users. The NSLOOKUP command is used to convert domain names to IP addresses. The GPRESULT command is used to see policies for a user and system.

124.

A user needs to take a single coaxial cable and divide it into three lines to send to three different televisions. 

What type of device will help the user in this situation?

  • Splitter

  • T-connector

  • Terminator

  • Vampire tap

Correct answer: Splitter

A splitter will take a signal and divide it into multiple replicas of the same signal. This can be useful for cable television or cable internet.

A T-connector lets a workstation connect to a coaxial network without a vampire tap. A terminator is used to create an endpoint for a coaxial cable network that does not echo back a signal. A vampire tap uses a metal tooth to connect to a cable for a workstation to get access to the network.

125.

Which is the MINIMUM edition of Windows 10 that has Hyper-V?

  • Windows 10 Pro

  • Windows 10 Home

  • Windows Pro for Workstation

  • Windows Enterprise

Correct answer: Windows 10 Pro

Windows 10 Pro is the minimal edition of Windows 10 that includes Hyper-V. Hyper-V is a hypervisor for virtualization.

Windows 10 Home does not include Hyper-V. Users with Windows 10 Home cannot use Hyper-V without upgrading to a higher edition. While both Windows Pro for Workstation and Windows Enterprise include Hyper-V, they are not the minimum edition. Pro for Workstation and Windows Enterprise include all the features of the Pro edition, plus more support.

126.

A cloud's capability to be utilized over the network by different types of clients, such as workstations, laptops, or mobile phones is defined as which of the following?

  • Broad network access

  • On-Demand Self-Service

  • Resource pooling

  • Rapid elasticity

Correct answer: Broad network access

Broad network access is defined by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) as one of the essential characteristics of cloud computing. The customer should be able to access the service how they want and when they want it.

On-demand self-service refers to being able to secure resources without intervention from the provider. Resource pooling refers to having access to a large amount of shared resources. Rapid elasticity refers to being able to scale up or down quickly based on demand. 

127.

A user wants to use a cloud-based application to create a file for a writing assignment. Which application can they run in their browser that would help them do this?

  • Google Docs

  • Hypervisor

  • VirtualBox

  • Lubuntu

Correct answer: Google Docs

Google Docs allows you to create documents in your web browser that exist in the cloud. Other companies have started doing this as well, such as Microsoft with Office 365. These types of programs are known as SaaS, software as a service, products. 

Hypervisor is a virtual machine monitor that allows a host to run multiple operating systems. VirtualBox is a hypervisor developed by Oracle. Lubuntu is a Linux distribution with a minimal desktop.

128.

What type of crash screen is shown on a macOS system when there is a fatal error, such as physical memory failing?

  • Rotating pinwheel

  • BSOD

  • 404

  • Blank screen

Correct answer: Rotating pinwheel

On a macOS, a rotating pinwheel can appear if the system is having a memory issue. This could involve an application accessing memory it shouldn't be able to or if it is in an endless loop.

The Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) is a Windows error screen. A 404 error is when a document on the web is not found. A blank screen is an error usually related to a display or display settings.

129.

You have been tasked with the drafting and completion of a new cloud contract. The requirements from the company necessitate that cloud resources can be increased without any intervention from the service provider due to SLA response times. Which of the following would be requested in the contract?

  • On-demand Self-Service

  • Rapid Elasticity

  • Resource Pooling

  • Measured Service

Correct answer: On-demand Self-Service

On-demand Self-Service provides access to users to request and allocate their own resources without needing the service provider's intervention. In most cases, the customer is provided with a front-end interface that can provide more resources upon request, such as additional storage, processing, and capabilities.

Rapid elasticity refers to being able to scale up or down quickly based on demand. Resource pooling refers to having a large amount of shared resources that can be used. Measured service refers to being charged only for services used.

130.

To increase security, an administrator implements WPA2 authentication on the company's wireless network. What type of threat is the administrator trying to mitigate against?

  • Man-in-the-Middle

  • Zero-day attack

  • Denial-of-Service

  • Rainbow table

Correct answer: Man-in-the-Middle

With Man-in-the-Middle, an attacker intercepts data between two nodes. Wi-fi networks can be easily eavesdropped on, so WPA2 authentication can help prevent Man-in-the-Middle attacks in this situation.

A zero-day attack is an attack that is out in the wild before a patch has been developed for it. A denial-of-service is an attack that takes a server offline by sending it excessive or malicious requests. A rainbow table attack is a password attack that uses a precomputed table of password hashes.

131.

If you want to download an Android or iOS application, what should you enable on the mobile device?

  • WiFi

  • Cellular data

  • App installer

  • Remote installer

Correct answer: WiFi

WiFi connects to a local network and downloads updates and apps from the WiFi connection. This means that the user's cellular data isn't used. WiFi skips the user's data plan and saves them money. 

App and Remote installer are not accepted terminologies.

132.

The previous administrator put the network together quickly and left many cables lying around that could be easily tripped on. What can be used to tidy cables so that they are not a hazard?

  • Cable ties

  • Wire strippers

  • ESD straps

  • Wire cutters

Correct answer: Cable ties

Cables that are not neatly organized can become a hazard. Cable ties allow you to keep your cords tight and neat.

Wire strippers are used to take off the coating of a wire to attach a connector to it. An ESD strap is used to protect equipment from electric shocks. Wire cutters are used to cleanly cut cables.

133.

A driver developer has created a driver for a device to run on Windows 10. However, the system is having difficulty booting up after installing the driver. Which option from the Windows Recovery Environment will let the developer return the system to an earlier state before the driver was installed?

  • System Restore

  • Safe Mode

  • Reliability Monitor

  • Debugging

Correct answer: System Restore

With System Restore, an administrator can go back to the last Restore Point that was created. This will revert applications, updates, and drivers to the previous state.

Safe Mode will load the system with minimal drivers, but not change the configuration. The Reliability Monitor is used to see when applications crashed and when updates were applied. Debugging is used to see messages generated during a bootup.

134.

An administrator wants to make logging into the company's network more secure. They are looking for a solution that involves unique characteristics that make up what a person is. 

What type of authentication should they consider?

  • Biometric

  • PIN

  • Password

  • Smartcard

Correct answer: Biometric

Biometric authentication involves personal attributes, such as fingerprints, facial recognition, or retina scans. These types of authentication are becoming popular on smartphones and work well in conjunction with other authentication schemes.

A PIN is a numeric code that a user must remember and enter. It is not based on physical characteristics and can be less secure if it is easily guessed or shared. A password is a string of characters that a user must remember and enter. Like a PIN, it is not based on physical characteristics and can be compromised through various means, such as phishing or brute force attacks. A smartcard is a physical card that stores authentication information. While it adds a layer of security, it does not involve unique physical characteristics of a person. Smartcards can be lost, stolen, or duplicated.

135.

A user's hard drive is suffering from slow performance and read/write failures. How can they analyze the data from their drive's S.M.A.R.T. feature?

  • Third-party software

  • Windows Control Panel

  • BIOS

  • Windows Recovery Environment

Correct answer: Third-party software

Windows OS does not come with its own graphical utility to parse the S.M.A.R.T. data. Instead, third-party applications like GSmartControl and HD Tune must be used.

The Windows Recovery Environment is used for troubleshooting and repairing Windows installations but does not provide tools specifically for reading S.M.A.R.T. data from hard drives. While some BIOS setups can display basic S.M.A.R.T. status information (such as whether the drive is healthy or failing), they do not offer detailed analysis or reporting of S.M.A.R.T. attributes. The Windows Control Panel does not include built-in tools for reading or analyzing S.M.A.R.T. data from hard drives.

136.

Windows has consistently featured a personalized set of colors and backgrounds that can be set by the user. These are known as what?

  • Themes

  • Desktops

  • Screen savers

  • Background

Correct answer: Themes

You can manually change the fonts, colors, and layout of your Windows desktop or use pre-installed themes. Themes offer limitless customization capabilities, and additional themes can be downloaded from the internet. Furthermore, you can customize your own design and save it as your theme. 

The desktop is the virtual space on which programs can be started. Screen savers are programs that run when the computer is idle. The background is the picture that is displayed on the desktop.

137.

You are working in a Linux terminal and need to create a new folder in the directory you are working in where the compiled application will store its data. 

Which of the following commands would you use?

  • mkdir -p /usr/src/app/data

  • mkdir -m /usr/src/app/data

  • mkdir -v /usr/src/app/data

  • rmdir -p /usr/src/app/data

Correct answer: mkdir -p /usr/src/app/data

The mkdir command is used to create directories in Linux. The -p option ensures that any parent directories that do not exist are also created. This command will create the /usr/src/app/data directory and any necessary parent directories that do not already exist.

The rmdir command is used to remove empty directories. It is not used to create directories. The -v option stands for "verbose" and will provide a message for each directory created. While this will create the directory, it does not ensure that parent directories are created if they do not exist. The -m option allows you to set the file mode (permissions) for the new directory. While this can be used to create a directory with specific permissions, it does not ensure that parent directories are created if they do not exist.

138.

Cable internet provides broadband internet using a specification known as:

  • DOCSIS

  • PPTP

  • Near-Field Communication

  • DSL

Correct answer: DOCSIS

Data Over Cable Service Internet Specification (DOCSIS) provides the ability to send multiple signals over the cable that exists already for television. It involves a form of multiplexing that splits the signal into multiple wavelengths that are then picked up by the necessary receiving device, which would be a cable modem. The other wavelengths are used for the actual cable television. The latest versions for DOCSIS are 3.0 and 3.1, providing much larger bandwidth capabilities. 

PPTP is an old VPN protocol. DSL uses phone lines. Near-Field Communication is a short-distance wireless standard.

139.

A user reports that they cannot connect to any network resources. You go to their workstation and see that their network card is lit up properly. Which command should you use next to see if the computer can connect to the loopback address?

  • Ping

  • Ipconfig

  • Netstat

  • Traceroute

Correct answer: Ping

Ping is a simple command that tries to get a response from various network addresses. Pinging the loopback address makes sure that the network card is working properly before trying to ping external addresses.

Ipconfig will give information about the device but not try to connect to the loopback device. Netstat gives information on active connections. Traceroute gives information about the path a packet takes to its destination.

140.

A user has their computer connected to a hub, and it has been operating normally. They decide to unplug the cable from the hub and connect it directly to another computer. What is the result of this action?

  • They don't make a connection because they are using a patch cable.

  • They don't make a connection because they are using a crossover cable.

  • They make a connection because they are using a patch cable.

  • They make a connection because they are using a crossover cable.

Correct answer: They don't make a connection because they are using a patch cable.

To connect a computer to a hub or switch, you need a patch cable. To connect to another computer, you need a crossover cable. A crossover cable will match the send and receive pins correctly between computers.

Computers connected to a hub use a patch cable. Two computers need a crossover cable to connect directly. They can't make a connection because they are using a patch cable.