NASM-PES Exam Questions

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1.

Which of the following is not a benefit of executing performance nutrition strategies?

  • Increases skilled performance

  • Delays the onset of fatigue

  • Prevents injury

  • Improves concentration

Correct answer: Increases skilled performance

Increases skilled performance is correct because this cannot be a direct result of proper performance nutrition strategies. These strategies can improve factors that aid in skilled performance, such as delayed fatigue and increased hand-eye coordination, concentration, and focus. However, an athlete cannot become more skilled directly from eating the right amounts of the right foods at the right times.

Delays the onset of fatigue, prevents injury, and improves concentration are incorrect because these are benefits of implementing performance nutrition strategies.

2.

When analyzing human movement patterns, biomechanical analysis can be both quantitative and which of the following?

  • Qualitative

  • Kinesthetic 

  • Aesthetic

  • Theoretical

Correct answer: Qualitative

Quantitative biomechanical analysis involves the measurement and numerical analysis of physical variables such as force, displacement, velocity, and acceleration, to describe and quantify the biomechanical characteristics of human movement patterns. This type of analysis is often used in sports science and research to evaluate and compare performance between athletes, identify areas for improvement, and track progress over time.

Qualitative biomechanical analysis, on the other hand, involves the subjective observation and evaluation of movement patterns, often using visual analysis and expert judgment to assess factors such as movement quality, efficiency, and technique. This type of analysis is often used in fields such as physical therapy, rehabilitation, and coaching, where subjective feedback and expert judgment are important for assessing movement patterns and making appropriate adjustments.

While quantitative biomechanical analysis is often more precise and objective, the qualitative analysis provides valuable insights into the nuances of movement patterns and can help practitioners to identify areas for improvement beyond numerical data. Both approaches are important for a comprehensive understanding of human movement patterns and their underlying biomechanics.

3.

Reactive abilities is a component of which of the following physical abilities?

  • Quickness

  • Speed

  • Agility

  • Flexibility

Correct answer: Quickness

Quickness is correct because this addresses the ability of an athlete to react or perceive while performing in terms of both quality and magnitude. The definition of quickness is the athlete's ability to execute movement skill in a comparatively brief amount of time and is part of the athletic continuum. Quickness training involves developing bio-motor skills related to decreasing reaction time.

Speed is incorrect because this is the rate of performing an activity and does not include reactivity.

Agility is incorrect because this relates specifically to the ability to change direction or orientation of the body and does not include reactivity.

Flexibility is incorrect because this is the extensibility of all soft tissues to allow full range of motion.

4.

During the last few miles of a marathon, which of the following metabolic pathways is likely to be sustaining blood glucose levels?

  • Gluconeogenesis

  • Glycolysis

  • Oxidation

  • Phosphorylation

Correct answer: Gluconeogenesis

Gluconeogenesis is correct because this pathway generates glucose from non-carbohydrate substrates such as pyruvate, lactate, glycerol and glucogenic amino acids. The process typically occurs as exercise duration increases and the glycogen levels in the muscle and liver fall. This process may occur at rest if an individual has not consumed enough daily carbohydrates.

Glycolysis is incorrect because this is a metabolic pathway that uses blood glucose, or glycogen, for energy.

Oxidation is incorrect because this is an aerobic metabolic process to produce energy.

Phosphorylation is incorrect because this is the removal of a phosphate group from a molecule to produce energy.

5.

If you have a client who is taking nitrates, what might the outcome be for their heart rate and blood pressure?

  • Increase heart rate / Decrease blood pressure

  • Increase heart rate / Increase blood pressure

  • Decrease heart rate / Decrease blood pressure

  • Decrease heart rate / Increase blood pressure

Correct answer: Increase heart rate / Decrease blood pressure

Nitrates are often prescribed for the treatment of chest pain and angina, and work by dilating blood vessels, which reduces the amount of work the heart has to do to pump blood. This can lead to a decrease in blood pressure and an increase in heart rate. 

As a personal trainer, it is important to know if your clients are taking nitrates, as their blood pressure may be lower than expected during exercise, and adjustments to their program may need to be made.

6.

You are assessing a new client whose focus is baseball. Which of the following would be an appropriate power-focused assessment?

  • Rotation MB Throw

  • Overhead Squat Test

  • LEFT Test

  • Davies Test

Correct answer: Rotation MB Throw

If your client is a baseball player and wants to improve their power, an appropriate power-focused assessment would be the Rotation Medicine Ball (MB) Throw.

The Rotation MB Throw measures the total body power and rotational power of the athlete, which is essential for throwing and hitting in baseball. It involves standing perpendicular to a wall and explosively rotating the torso while throwing a medicine ball as far as possible. The distance thrown is recorded and used to determine the athlete's power output.

Another power-focused assessment that may be appropriate for baseball players is the Double Leg Vertical Jump. These assessments help to measure the athlete's upper and lower body power, respectively, which are important for generating force and speed in baseball movements.

7.

Which of the following is NOT a behavioral property of muscle?

  • Inability to develop tension

  • Extensibility

  • Elasticity

  • Irritability

Correct answer: Inability to develop tension

Muscle tissue has four behavioral properties:

  1. Extensibility: Refers to the ability of the muscle to be stretched or lengthened.
  2. Elasticity: Refers to the ability of the muscle to return to a normal length after being stretched or lengthened.
  3. Irritability: Refers to the ability of the muscle to respond to a stimulus.
  4. Ability to develop tension: Refers to the ability of the muscle to develop tension through contraction or the activation of a force within the muscle, to produce an action at the joint.

8.

If an older client who was once athletic is experiencing a loss in the numbers of muscle fibers due to a lack of activity, then they are suffering from which of the following?

  • Sarcopenia

  • Atrophy

  • Heart disease

  • Elastic limit

Correct answer: Sarcopenia

Sarcopenia is a decrease in the number of muscle fibers. Although the two are related, this should not be confused with atrophy, which is a loss in muscle fiber size.

Both of these conditions are effects of aging, but both can be staved off by maintaining a consistent program of exercise and physical activity.

9.

During the overhead squat assessment to determine dynamic postural control, how low should the athlete be instructed to descend?

  • Approximately the height of a chair

  • Approximately ninety degrees

  • Approximately to a quarter squat

  • To the floor

Correct answer: Approximately the height of a chair

Approximately the height of a chair is correct because this is a known depth for most individuals and is enough depth to establish if any movement impairments will occur during this pattern. This movement will be completed five times to allow the Sports Performance Professional to observe the different areas of the body with both a lateral and posterior view. The overhead squat assessment is used to evaluate dynamic flexibility, core strength, balance and overall neuromuscular control.

Approximately ninety degrees is incorrect because an athlete may not have the kinesthetic awareness to understand this depth.

Approximately to a quarter squat is incorrect because this is ambiguous and not enough depth to observe functional ability.

To the floor is incorrect because this is a depth that many individuals may not be able to reach and is excessive to observe functional ability.

10.

Which of the following types of movement is created by a rapid lengthening of a muscle immediately followed by a shortening, creating an elastic effect of energy release?

  • Ballistic movement

  • Oscillatory movement

  • Isometric movement

  • Isotonic movement

Correct answer: Ballistic movement

The type of movement created by a rapid lengthening of a muscle immediately followed by a shortening, creating an elastic effect of energy release, is called a ballistic movement. It can also be referred to as a plyometric or stretch-shortening cycle movement.

Ballistic movements are characterized by their rapid and explosive nature, and they involve the use of the body's natural elastic properties and the stretch reflex to generate force. The stretch-shortening cycle consists of three phases:

  1. Eccentric phase: The muscle is rapidly lengthened, or stretched, as it experiences an external force. During this phase, the muscle stores potential elastic energy.
  2. Amortization phase: This is a short transitional phase between the eccentric and concentric phases. The goal is to minimize the time spent in this phase to maximize the use of stored elastic energy.
  3. Concentric phase: The muscle quickly shortens, or contracts, using the stored elastic energy and the stretch reflex to produce a powerful, explosive movement.

It is important to note that ballistic movements and plyometric exercises should be performed with proper technique and progression, as they can be demanding on the muscles, tendons, and joints. Adequate conditioning, warm-up, and progression are essential to minimize the risk of injury and ensure the effective use of these types of movements in training.

11.

Jack is a football athlete unsure of how much carbohydrate he should be consuming. As a Sports Performance Professional, what guideline can be provided to this athlete to optimize athletic performance?

  • 5 to 7 g/kg/day

  • 4 to 5 g/kg/day

  • 7 to 10 g/kg/day

  • 11 or more g/kg/day

Correct answer: 5 to 7 g/kg/day

5 to 7 g/kg/day is correct because this is the recommended amount for general training needs, the category specific to a football athlete. This amount of carbohydrate will provide sufficient energy to prevent fatigue, maintain optimal cognitive function, and prevent injury and illness. Athletes who perform more endurance-type training and competition would require greater amounts of carbohydrate than strength and power athletes.

4 to 5 g/kg/day is incorrect because this is the recommendation for a general, sedentary individual.

7 to 10 g/kg/day is incorrect because this is the recommendation for an endurance athlete.

11 or more g/kg/day is incorrect because this is the recommendation for an ultra-endurance athlete.

12.

According to the volume continuum, which of the following adaptations is NOT correct in relation to the recommended repetitions per exercise?

  • Strength: 1–12 repetitions per exercise

  • Stabilization/Strength Endurance: 36–75 repetitions per exercise

  • Hypertrophy: 27–36 repetitions per exercise

  • Power: 12–20 repetitions per exercise

Correct answer: Strength: 1–12 repetitions per exercise

For an athlete to achieve optimum results from an integrated training program, the program must provide appropriate planned training volume over extended periods of time. Greater amounts of stress are needed as an athlete progresses. 

One way you can ensure your athlete is getting the appropriate amount of progressive resistance for continual results is to move up and down the volume continuum:

  • Stabilization/Strength Endurance: 36–75 repetitions per exercise
  • Hypertrophy: 27–36 repetitions per exercise
  • Strength: 18–24 repetitions per exercise
  • Power: 12–20 repetitions per exercise

13.

Which hormone is responsible for transporting glucose and amino acids into cells and initiating glycogen and protein synthesis?

  • Insulin

  • Adrenaline

  • Leptin

  • Testosterone

Correct answer: Insulin

Insulin is a hormone that is secreted by the pancreas in response to rising blood sugar levels. Its primary function is to regulate the metabolism of glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids. Insulin helps to transport glucose and amino acids from the bloodstream into cells, where they can be used for energy or stored for later use. 

In addition to its role in glucose metabolism, insulin also plays a key role in initiating glycogen and protein synthesis. This makes it an important hormone for athletes and individuals who are looking to build muscle mass or improve their athletic performance.

14.

Trevor has just completed his second week of training maximal strength. Last week he performed 6 sets of 3 reps at 90% of 1RM with the squat exercise. Which of the following progressions would be the most appropriate for this athlete in the upcoming microcycle?

  • 6 sets of 3 reps at 92% of 1RM with the squat exercise

  • 6 sets of 4 reps at 90% of 1RM with the squat exercise

  • 6 sets of 3 reps at 90% of 1RM with the squat on a balance board exercise

  • 6 sets of 3 reps at 88% of 1RM with the squat exercise

Correct answer: 6 sets of 3 reps at 92% of 1RM with the squat exercise

6 sets of 3 reps at 92% of 1RM with the squat exercise is correct because during the maximal strength phase of training in the OPT model, intensity is progressed. Maximal strength training is used to increase the recruitment of motor units, increase the rate of force production and improve motor unit synchronization. This is a very high-intensity training phase, and thus should only be performed for four weeks.

6 sets of 4 reps at 90% of 1RM with the squat exercise is incorrect because increasing training volume is appropriate for endurance or hypertrophy training phases.

6 sets of 3 reps at 90% of 1RM with the squat on a balance board exercise is incorrect because increasing proprioceptive need is for stabilization training phases.

6 sets of 3 reps at 88% of 1RM with the squat exercise is incorrect because this would not be a progression.

15.

During a double-leg lowering test, which of the following degree ranges is considered "good+" and "good?"

  • 15 to 30 degrees

  • 30 to 45 degrees

  • 45 to 60 degrees

  • 60 to 75 degrees

Correct answer: 15 to 30 degrees

During a double-leg lowering test, a range of 15 to 30 degrees from the floor is considered "good+" and "good" regarding core strength and lumbo-pelvic stability. This range represents the angle between the floor and the client's legs when they can no longer maintain the natural curve of their lumbar spine, indicated by a change in pressure on the blood pressure cuff.

A smaller angle (closer to 15 degrees) suggests better core strength and control. In comparison, a larger angle (closer to 30 degrees) represents a good but slightly lower core strength and stability level.

Fitness professionals can use this information to design targeted exercise programs to improve core strength, stability, and lumbar spine positioning, ultimately contributing to better overall movement quality, posture, and a reduced risk of injury.

16.

Which of the following does not make up what a lever system is composed of?

  • Volume

  • Force

  • Resistance

  • Fulcrum

Correct answer: Volume

A lever system is a type of simple machine that involves bones acting as levers. These levers consist of three components: a fulcrum, a force, and a load force. The fulcrum is the fixed point around which the lever rotates, while the muscles provide the force to be applied to the lever to move the load. The load force is the resistance or weight being moved by the lever.

The length of the lever arm, which is the distance between the fulcrum and the point where the effort force is applied, determines the mechanical advantage of the lever system. In the human body, bones act as levers, with joints serving as the fulcrum. The muscles provide the force to move the bones and create movement.

17.

An athlete is planning to train for fat loss for one month. Which of the following resistance training systems can a Sports Performance Professional recommend to best aid the athlete in achieving their goal?

  • Peripheral heart action system

  • Single-set system

  • Split routine system

  • Pyramid system

Correct answer: Peripheral heart action system

Peripheral heart action system is correct because this system allows an individual to maintain a high rate of activity during a resistance training session. This is accomplished through alternating upper and lower body exercises as a variation of circuit training. The number of exercises and repetitions as well as which exercises are performed can be chosen to suit this specific goal of the athlete.

Single-set system is incorrect because this system is typically used with more controlled tempos for muscular hypertrophy.

Split routine system is incorrect because splitting the body into parts is more often utilized for strength and hypertrophy training.

Pyramid system is incorrect because this system is used to increase strength or muscular endurance.

18.

During the power clean, you notice that an athlete has poor trunk flexion. Which of the following is the BEST remedy for this?

  • Actively engage the local and global stabilizers

  • Use a lighter weight

  • Move the bar lower on the shoulders and clavicles

  • Make sure the knees track with the toes

Correct answer: Actively engage the local and global stabilizers

During the power clean, the barbell is racked on the front shoulders; and one of the most common issues with this position is poor trunk flexion. The most likely cause of this is inner unit instability or weak trunk extensors.

The best remedy for poor trunk flexion during the power clean is to actively engage the local and global stabilizers. In particular, you should use the cue of engaging the pelvic floor and bracing the abdominal region.

Using a lighter weight could also be helpful, but it's not the best remedy for this issue.

19.

When an athlete performs any frontal plane or transverse plane step-up exercise, which foot should be brought up to the box first?

  • Foot closest to the box

  • Foot furthest from the box

  • Left foot

  • Right foot

Correct answer: Foot closest to the box

Foot closest to the box is correct because this allows for an open step, which is the safest for the athlete. Safety during any step-up exercise is also achieved by ensuring that the entire foot is placed in the middle of the box. Step-up exercises can be modified to focus on stabilization, strength or power.

Foot furthest from the box is incorrect because this would force a cross-over step, which could be unsafe for the athlete and cause a fall.

Right foot and left foot are incorrect because the direction the athlete is facing will determine which foot is furthest away from the box.

20.

Which of the following is considered a precursor for androstenedione? 

  • DHEA

  • EPA

  • DHA

  • ALA

Correct answer: DHEA

DHEA is considered a precursor for androstenedione.

Androstenedione is a steroid hormone produced in the adrenal glands and gonads. It is also considered a precursor hormone for testosterone and estrogen biosynthesis. 

DHEA (dehydroepiandrosterone) is a steroid hormone produced in the adrenal glands, and it is the precursor for androstenedione. DHEA is a commonly used supplement for its potential benefits in promoting muscle growth, reducing fat mass, and improving mood and energy levels. 

However, the effectiveness and safety of DHEA supplementation are still under investigation, and it is important to consult with a healthcare professional before taking any supplements.

One important item to note is that prohormones like DHEA are banned substances.