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Quiz Session - Attempts With Random Questions

NSCA CSPS Exam Questions

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1.

You have been working with your client who has a higher risk for a cardiovascular event for two months. After a re-assessment, you believe that it is appropriate to increase the intensity to moderate-intensity activities. What is defined as moderate intensity?

  • 40% to 60% VO2 / 3 to < 6 METs / 12-13 RPE

  • 30% to 40% VO2 / 1 to < 3 METs / 6-9 RPE

  • 60% to 70% VO2 / 6 to < 9 METs / 15-20 RPE

Correct answer: 40% to 60% VO2 / 3 to < 6 METs / 12-13 RPE

The client you're working with has a higher risk for a cardiovascular event but has made steady and promising progress over the course of two months. You perform a re-assessment and you believe that you can increase the intensity to moderate-intensity activities. Moderate intensity is defined as the following:

  • 40% to < 60% VO2 or heart rate reserve
  • 3 to < 6 METs
  • 12-13 Rating of Perceived Exertion or RPE (on 6- to 20-point Borg scale)

Moderate-intensity activities produce a noticeable increase in heart rate and respiration rate.

2.

There are a variety of postural conditions that can impact training. Which postural condition is defined as an excessive outward curvature of the thoracic spine?

  • Hyperkyphosis

  • Scoliosis

  • Hyperlordosis

Correct answer: Hyperkyphosis

There are a variety of postural conditions that can impact training. Hyperkyphosis is described as an excessive outward curvature of the thoracic spine. This condition is more commonly known as "hunchback." 

It is essential to consult with your client to define which medically diagnosed postural condition he or she has, as this will impact which assessment and exercises are deemed appropriate to use with that client.

3.

Which of the following occurs as result of the formation of a thrombus or clot associated with an atherosclerotic lesion that has formed in a branch or in branches of the coronary artery system?

  • Myocardial infarction

  • Chronic heart failure

  • Unstable angina

Correct answer: Myocardial infarction

Better known as a heart attack, a myocardial infarction (MI) happens when a thrombus or clot associated with an atherosclerotic lesion forms in the branches of the coronary artery system.

Severity of this condition will vary greatly depending on the amount of tissue that is damaged and the extent of collateral blood flow. Early detection and treatment is essential to reduce symptoms and long-term risk.

4.

Pregnant women should avoid which type of exercise positions after the first trimester?

  • Supine positions

  • Prone positions

  • Pronate positions

Correct answer: Supine positions

Pregnant women should avoid exercise in a supine position after the first trimester. The supine position refers to when someone is lying on their back. Research suggests that lying in a supine position after the first trimester can reduce blood flow to the uterus and cause cardiovascular issues for the mother.

5.

Which of the following best reflects the recommended acute variables of a resistance training exercise program for a client with muscular dystrophy?

  • 1 day per week / 8-10 multijoint exercises / 40-60% 1RM / 1 set / 10-12 reps

  • 2 days per week / 4-8 multijoint exercises / 50-70% 1RM / 2 sets / 10-15 reps

  • 5 days per week / 10-12 multijoint exercises / 80% 1RM / 3 sets / 10-12 reps

Correct answer: 1 day per week / 8-10 multijoint exercises / 40-60% 1RM / 1 set / 10-12 reps

If you are working with a client who has muscular dystrophy, the following acute variables are recommended for a resistance training exercise program:

  • Modes of training: Weight training machines and elastic tubing
  • 1-2 days per week (eventually progress to 4 days per week with a split body part routine)
  • 8-10 multijoint exercises
  • 40-60% 1RM
  • 1 set per exercise (progress to 2 to 3 sets)
  • 10-12 repetitions
  • Resting period: Between 1 to 2 minutes

Keep in mind that these variables might need to be adjusted based on the results of exercise testing and assessments detailing symptom severity in response to exercise intensity and duration.

6.

Which of the following is described as a type of lupus that primarily affects the skin without internal disease?

  • Discoid lupus erythematosus

  • Lupus erythematosus

  • Systemic lupus erythematosus

Correct answer: Discoid lupus erythematosus

The type of lupus that primarily affects the skin without internal disease is known as discoid lupus erythematosus.

On the other end of the spectrum, systemic lupus erythematosus is an internal form of lupus that may be classified as either nonorgan threatening or organ threatening.

7.

You are working with a pregnant client. Which of the following is a valid safety concern that could affect training?

  • Pregnant women tend to overheat

  • Client will cancel most of her sessions

  • Client exercise preference will change

Correct answer: Pregnant women tend to overheat

Pregnant women tend to become overheated during exercise and it's possible that this can lead to dehydration.

Blood flow to the skin naturally increases during pregnancy. What's more, exercising in hot, humid environments could put undue stress on the mother’s body and developing baby due to increased redirection of blood to the skin for cooling. Therefore, it's important that the trainer provides an appropriate training environment involving a cool and well-ventilated area.

8.

Which of the following best describes the typical American or "Western" diet?

  • High fat consumption / High meat-based protein consumption / Low plant consumption

  • High fat consumption / Moderate meat-based protein consumption / Low plant consumption

  • Moderate fat consumption / High meat-based protein consumption / Moderate plant consumption

Correct answer: High fat consumption / High meat-based protein consumption / Low plant consumption

The typical American or "Western" diet is comprised primarily of meats and very few vegetables or plant-based options. The fat and protein content is high and it comes from animal sources. The Western diet is associated with the highest risk of becoming overweight or obese. Individuals on this diet tend to develop metabolic health conditions as well such as type-II diabetes.

The plant-based diet, which is associated with fewer cardiovascular conditions, is low in fat content, moderate in protein content, and high in vegetable and fruit content.

9.

Which of the following is described as a loss of consciousness for more than 20 minutes but less than six hours?

  • Moderate traumatic brain injury

  • Mild traumatic brain injury

  • Severe traumatic brain injury

Correct answer: Moderate traumatic brain injury

When there is loss of consciousness for more than 20 minutes but less than 6 hours, this is referred to as a moderate traumatic brain injury (TBI). The symptoms of moderate TBI include the following:

  • Headache (usually doesn't go away)
  • Vomiting
  • Nausea
  • Slurred speech
  • Convulsions or seizures
  • Enlargement of the pupil (dark center) of one or both eyes
  • Numbness or tingling
  • Loss of coordination
  • Feeling dazed and confused (The individual may be confused for a period of days to weeks)

With a moderate TBI, physical, cognitive, and behavioral performance may be impaired for weeks or months.

10.

All of the following are side effects of anti-estrogen medication except:

  • Forgetfulness

  • Loss of strength

  • Bone loss

Correct answer: Forgetfulness 

As the name implies, anti-estrogen drugs work by temporarily blocking the estrogen receptors in all tissues. Commonly taken by individuals with breast cancer, side effects can include the following:

  • Hot flashes
  • Night sweats
  • Mild nausea
  • Gastrointestinal symptoms
  • Loss of strength
  • Fatigue
  • Pain
  • Bone loss

Forgetfulness is not a common side effect of anti-estrogen drugs.

It's important to take note of these side effects as they can directly impact a training session with a client who is taking anti-estrogen drugs.

11.

Which of the following is described as damage to the nerves and blood vessels in your eyes?

  • Retinopathy

  • Neuropathy 

  • Peripheral artery disease

Correct answer: Retinopathy

Autonomic neuropathy is a group of conditions caused by damage to your nerves. Retinopathy, a common condition associated with diabetes, involves damage to the nerves and blood vessels in the tissue at the back of the eyes. It can lead to many different symptoms that may impact an exercise session including dizziness and fatigue.

12.

All of the following can help a client with chronic fatigue naturally increase his energy levels except:

  • Antivirals

  • Stimulants

  • CoQ10

Correct answer: Antivirals

While there is no cure for chronic fatigue, symptoms can be managed with a variety of medications and supplements. In order to naturally increase energy levels, the following substances are recommended:

  • Stimulants such as caffeine (e.g., coffee, pre-workout)
  • Vitamins
  • Minerals
  • Essential fatty acids
  • CoQ10
  • Specific amino acids

While antivirals might be helpful to combat the symptoms of the condition, they do not increase energy levels.

It's important to ask your client whether they are using any of these energy-boosting substances as they can be beneficial for training. As always, have the client discuss this with their physician.

13.

All of the following are risk factors for the female athlete triad except:

  • Between 16 and 26 years of age

  • Recurrent and non-healing injuries

  • History of dieting

Correct answer: Between 16 and 26 years of age

As a personal trainer, it will be essential to look for signs and symptoms of the female athlete triad. Early detection can help to limit and avoid medical issues and health complications. Here are the top ten risk factors for the female athlete triad:

  1. History of menstrual irregularities and amenorrhea
  2. History of stress fractures
  3. History of critical comments about eating or weight from parent, coach, or teammate
  4. History of depression
  5. History of dieting
  6. Personality factors (such as perfectionism and obsessiveness)
  7. Pressure to lose weight and/or frequent weight cycling
  8. Early start of sport-specific training
  9. Overtraining
  10. Recurrent and non-healing injuries

Age is not a factor in determining risk for the health complications of the female athlete triad.

14.

Which of the following best reflects the recommended acute variables of a flexibility exercise program for a client with chronic fatigue syndrome?

  • Daily / Dynamic and static stretching / 8-10 stretches / Hold 15-60 sec

  • 3-4 days per week / Dynamic stretching / 6-8 stretches / 20-30 seconds each

  • Daily / Only static stretching / 8-10 stretches / Hold 60+ sec

Correct answer: Daily / Dynamic and static stretching / 8-10 stretches / Hold 15-60 sec

If you are working with a client with chronic fatigue syndrome, the following acute variables are recommended for a standard flexibility exercise program:

  • Daily
  • Dynamic and static stretching
  • 8-10 static stretches
  • Session of 5 to 10 minutes
  • Hold stretches for 15-60 seconds as tolerated

Keep in mind that these variables might need to be adjusted based on the results of exercise testing and assessments detailing symptom severity in response to exercise intensity and duration.

15.

Which of the following transports fat from the intestine to the liver and adipose tissue?

  • Chylomicrons 

  • Triglycerides

  •  Low-density lipoproteins

Correct answer: Chylomicrons 

Chylomicrons are small fat globules composed of protein and lipid, and they are found in blood and lymphatic fluids. Chylomicrons transport fat from the intestine to the liver and adipose tissue. As with triglycerides, high levels of chylomicrons are associated with atherosclerosis.

16.

Which of the following types of cerebral palsy damages one side of the brain resulting in deficits in the opposite side of the body?

  • Spastic hemiplegia

  • Hypertonia

  • Spastic tetraplegia

Correct answer: Spastic hemiplegia

Spastic hemiplegia affects one side of the body, with damage to one side of the brain resulting in deficits in the opposite side of the body. Individuals with spastic hemiplegia are generally ambulatory but often require assistive devices to assist gait on the affected side. Examples of assisted devices include ankle–foot orthoses.

A thorough assessment will be required to determine the physical ability of a client with spastic hemiplegia.

17.

Which special population is most at risk for the side effects of opiates when treating low back pain?

  • Older adults

  • Adults with cardiovascular disease

  • Adolescents

Correct answer: Older adults

Adults who are 50 years of age or older with low back pain (LBP) are at a greater risk than others for side effects from pain-killing medications. There is a higher possibility of complications during exercise, especially if the older adult is using more than one medication. 

18.

Which of the following comprise the majority of the body's fat stores?

  • Triglycerides

  • Chylomicrons

  • Lipoproteins

Correct answer: Triglycerides

Triglycerides comprise the majority of the body's fat stores. However, they can also be found in muscle. 

Triglycerides are lipids that are carried in the bloodstream to tissues and they are used for energy. High levels of triglycerides are independently associated with a high risk for atherosclerosis.

19.

Which of the following best reflects the recommended acute variables of an aerobic exercise program for a client with stable angina?

  • 4-7 days per week / Cycling / 10 to 15 beats/min below the ischemic threshold / 20-60 minutes

  • 1-2 days per week / HIIT / 10 to 15 beats/min above the ischemic threshold / 10-20 minutes

  • 2-3 days per week / Weightlifting / 25 beats/min below the ischemic threshold / 60+ minutes

Correct answer: 4-7 days per week / Cycling / 10 to 15 beats/min below the ischemic threshold / 20-60 minutes

If you are working with a client who has stable angina, the following acute variables are recommended for a standard aerobic exercise program:

  • 4-7 days per week
  • Large muscle group activities such as walking, jogging, or cycling
  • Intensity: 10 to 15 beats per minute below the ischemic threshold
  • 20 to 60 minutes or more of either continuous or accumulated exercise throughout the day; for example, the client can perform two to six bouts of 10 minutes each
  • An overall increase in daily living activities (e.g. cleaning up around the house or gardening)

Keep in mind that these variables might need to be adjusted based on the results of exercise testing and assessments detailing symptom severity in response to exercise intensity and duration.

20.

Regardless of training status or presence of disease, a client must be referred for medical clearance if which of the following occur?

  • Client develops new signs or symptoms of disease

  • Client wants to alter their body composition goals

  • Client is concerned about rate of progress in the exercise program

Correct answer: Client develops new signs or symptoms of disease

Regardless of the current training status or presence of disease, if a client develops new signs or symptoms of disease, then he or she should be referred for medical clearance immediately. Even if the client is in the middle of an exercise program, it must be discontinued and medical clearance should be obtained before continuing.

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